tag:blogger.com,1999:blog-26089621067245770042011-11-27T15:18:10.833-08:00MCQ's online qpapers nimhans qbank upse qbank MCI india qpapers aiims, All India, BHU, Rajasthan PG, Delhi PG, chennai PG, Maharashtra PG, Chandigarh PG, Bangalore PG, karanataka PG, Andhra PG, Jipmer PG, DNB,ckanthnoreply@blogger.comBlogger401100tag:blogger.com,1999:blog-2608962106724577004.post-43616405573720471222010-05-24T00:34:00.000-07:002010-05-24T00:36:16.771-07:00<div class="blogger-post-footer"><img width='1' height='1' src='https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/tracker/2608962106724577004-4361640557372047122?l=hi5times.blogspot.com' alt='' /></div>ckanthnoreply@blogger.com0tag:blogger.com,1999:blog-2608962106724577004.post-4537725499387238252010-04-27T22:08:00.000-07:002010-05-25T22:17:49.982-07:00AIPGMEE 2010 QUESTIONS<br /><br />ANATOMY<br /><br />1. hypogastric sheath is condensation of<br />a. pelvic fascia<br />b. colles fascia<br />c. scarpas fascia<br /><br />2. urogenital diaphram is made up of a/e<br />a. deep transvers perinei<br />b. perineal membrane<br />c. sphincter urethrae<br />d. colles fascia<br /><br />3. relation of celiac plexus ?<br />a. anteromedial to aorta<br />b. posterolateral to aorta.<br />c. anteromedial to lumbar sympahathetic chain<br />d. posterolateral to lumbar symphathetic chain<br /><br />4. structures passing thro foramen magnum ?<br />a. vertebral artery<br />b. 12th N.<br />c. lumbar symphathetic<br />d. internal carotid art<br /><br />5. Nerve supply of Gluteus Medius ?<br />a. superior gluteal nerve<br />b. inferior gluteal nerve<br />c. <br />d. <br /><br />6. coarctation, collateral formed by all except<br />a. vertebral artery<br />b. suprascapular artery<br />c. pst int cost<br />d. axillary<br /><br />7. which of the following is composite muscle except<br />a. flexor carpi ulnaris<br />b. pectineus<br />c. biceps<br />d. flexer dig superficialis<br /><br />8. which tendon passes below sustentacula tali closely associated<br />a. tibialis anterior<br />b. tibialis posterior<br />c. flexer hallucis longus<br />9. median nerve leision at wrist cause all of the following except<br />a. thenar atrophy<br />b. adductor pollicis<br />c. lumbricals of index<br />d. lumbricals of middle<br /><br />10. left side SVC drains into<br />a. right atrium<br />b. left atriam<br />c. coronary sinus<br />d. pericardial space<br /><br />11. shoulder abduction all except....<br />a. clavi movemnt<br />b. medial scapula rotation<br />c. acromio clavicl jt movement<br />d. humerus evelation<br /><br />12. lymph drainage of spongiform urethra<br />a. deep inguinal LN<br />b. sup inguinal<br />c. int iliac<br />d. ext iliac<br /><br />13. pt rta,quadriparesis,loss of bladder bowel tone,sensory level supra sternal rr-30,hr-120<br />a. medulla<br />b. c1 c2<br />c. c5 c6<br />d. t<br />e. 5 c6<br /><br />14. mc anomaly of renal vein<br />a. Supranumerary renal vein<br />b. Supranumerary renal artery<br />c. Double renal vein<br />d. Double renal artery<br /><br />15. bronchial artery a/e<br />a. helps in gas exchange<br />b. shunt<br />c. <br />d. <br /><br />PHYSIOLOGY<br /><br />16. Which inhibit insulin...<br />a. gasrtin<br />b. secrtin<br />c. adrenlin<br />d. <br /><br />17. Hot water bath use in intestine colic-<br />a. adrenergic activation<br />b. cholinergic<br />c. cold receptor<br />d. peritoneal worm receptor<br /><br />18. Non resp function of lung<br />a. exchange of anions<br />b. sodium exchange<br />c. potassium exchange<br />d. ca++<br /><br />19. For water mainly absorbed in which part of intestine?<br />a. colon<br />b. jejunum<br />c. stomach<br />d. ileum<br /><br />20. Action of NO on intestine?<br />a. vasoconstrict<br />b. vasodilatation<br />c. smooth mus relaxation<br />d. <br /><br />21. In standing position venous return affected by a/e?<br />a. calf mus<br />b. bp<br />c. tendinous fassa<br />d. peforator<br /><br />22. Vit k dependent clotting factors<br />a. 9 10<br />b. <br /><br />23. low BMR is seen in<br />a. obesity<br />b. after feeding<br />c. exercise<br />d. hyperthyroid<br /><br />24. BMR depends on<br />a. Body Sex and age<br />b. lean body mass<br />c. <br />d. <br /><br />25. minimal motion heart max at<br />a. end sys<br />b. end diastole<br />c. mid systole<br />d. mid diastole<br /><br />26. During Exercise the cardiac output rises upto 5 times, but pulmonary vascular resistance only few mm hg. Why?<br />a. sympathetic stimulation causing vasodilatation<br />b. opening of parallel channels<br />c. pulmonary vasoconstricion<br />d. <br /><br />27. Inulin aCT like probiotic<br />a. Inhibition of gastric enzyme<br />b. Binds with specific enzyme &amp; causes degradation<br />c. Increase water content<br />d. <br /><br />28. Inulin Not Metabolised In Git<br />a. Resistance 2 Gastric Acid<br />b. Lack Of Enzyme<br />c. <br />d. <br /><br />BIOCHEM<br /><br />29. sphingomelinase def<br />a. neimann pick<br />b. <br />c. <br />d. <br /><br />30. rothera test<br />a. ketone<br />b. <br />c. <br /><br />31. not moving on elctrophoresis...<br />a. chylomicron<br />b. LDL<br />c. VLDL<br />d. hdl<br /><br />32. used for aneuploiidy detection a\e<br />a. FISH...<br />b. micro array genomic hybridisation<br />c. <br />d. PCR<br /><br />33. prenatal diagnosis of hemophilia is made by<br />a. linkage studies<br />b. RT PCR<br />c. microarray<br />d. cynogenetics<br /><br />34. to analyse gene expression which technique is used or for detecting genetic transfer of disease<br />a. northern blot<br />b. sourthern blot<br />c. western blot<br />d. microarray<br /><br />35. multiple dc def<br />a. maple syp<br />b. <br />c. <br />d. <br /><br />36. hepatomegaly, hypoglycemia not resp to epinephrine<br />a. von gar<br />b. <br />c. <br />d. <br /><br />37. process in which exchange of ions in solution form with that on to surface form occurs in<br />a. ion exchange*<br />b. paper chromatography<br />c. <br />d. <br /><br />38. Deficiency of decorboxylation of branched chain amino acid leads to ?<br />a. Maple syrup urine disease<br /><br />PATHOLOGY<br /><br />39. Low CSF protein is seen in a/e (all expect)<br />a. Infant<br />b. Pseudotumor cerebri<br />c. Hypothyroidism<br />d. Recurrent lumbar puncture<br /><br />40. urea/creatine ratio 20:1 so relatively creatinine not increase in<br />a. lead nephropathy<br />b. cgn<br />c. myolysis<br />d. is prerenal 2failure as it is used to distinguish prerenal from postrenal failure.<br /><br />41. AFP is increased in<br />a. seminoma<br />b. renal cell carcinoma<br />c. hepatoblastoma<br />d. <br /><br />42. Bradykinin<br />a. pain<br />b. vasodil<br />c. vasoconst<br />d. Receptor<br /><br />43. for typing langerhans histiocytosis<br />a. cD 1a<br />b. cd 20<br />c. c-cd 3<br />d. cd 30<br /><br />44. in Plasmacytoid Lymphoma Mainly Secretes<br />a. igg<br />b. ig a<br />c. ig m<br />d. igd<br /><br />45. in amylodosis which heavy chain disease with bence jone proteinuria is associated<br />a. gamma<br />b. labda<br />c. mu<br />Klippel Fiel Syndrome ?<br /><br />46. caspases -<br />a. cell injury<br />b. necrosis<br />c. apoptosis.<br />d. <br /><br />47. apoptosis light microscopic microscopic featue...?<br />a. intact cell membrane...<br />b. eosinophilic cytoplasm<br />c. swelling of cell<br />d. nuclear<br /><br />48. Down s genetics<br />a. maternal...non disjunction<br />b. paternal..non disjunction<br />c. mosaicism<br />d. <br /><br />49. CHROMOPHIL cell RCC...genetics<br />a. mutn VHL gene<br />b. loss of 5p<br />c. loss of 3p<br />d. trisomy of 7,17<br /><br />50. burkitt<br />a. 8:14<br />b. 12:21<br />c. <br />d. <br /><br />51. mcc of abd aortic aneurysm<br />a. artherosclerosi<br />b. syphylis<br />c. <br />d. <br /><br />52. hyperthalamic hypogonadotrophic in men<br />a. klienfelters<br />b. noonan<br />c. viral orchitis<br />d. kallaman<br /><br />53. thrombosis in neph synd due to<br />a. loss of at3<br />b. protc<br />c. prot s<br />d. antiphospholipid antibody<br /><br />54. testicular tumour with elevated afp all poss except<br />a. choricaarcinoma<br />b. teratocarcinoma<br />c. yolk sac carcinoma<br />d. emb cell ca<br /><br />55. -t(2,8) is a/s with<br />a. t cell ALL<br />b. b cell ALL(BURKITTS)<br />c. CML<br />d. CLL<br /><br />56. both mullerian and wolffian ducts never seen in<br />a. ovotesticular synd<br />b. gonadal dysgenesis<br />c. FSH receptor defect<br />d. anti mullarian substance deficiency<br /><br />57. A Pedigree chart regarding cystic fibrosis. Percentage of siblings to be a carrier ,autosomal recessive<br />a. 0<br />b. 1/2<br />c. 2/3<br />d. 1/4<br /><br />58. -rb gene mutation,pt not having retinoblastoma.next most common tumor will be<br />a. osteosarcoma<br />b. <br />c. <br />d. <br /><br />59. in pnh which somatic gene mutation<br />a. daf<br />b. mirl<br />c. gpi<br />d. <br /><br />60. fanconis anaemia a/e<br />a. ad<br />b. <br />c. <br />d. <br /><br />61. Brown tumour associated with<br />a. Hyperparathyroidism<br />b. <br />c. <br />d. <br /><br />62. Pathogenesis of all of the following is granulomatous except<br />a. wegener's granulomatosis<br />b. buerger's disease<br />c. takayasu's arteritis<br />d. churg staruss<br /><br />63. Antigen binding site in MHC1<br />a. between 2 alpha and 2 beta<br />b. distal end of alpha sub u<br />c. prox end of alpha sub u<br />d. between 1 alpha and 1 beta cleft<br /><br />64. Disease only occuring in male<br />a. X linked res<br />b. xd<br />c. ad<br />d. ar<br /><br />65. paraganglioma associated with<br />a. dense core granules<br />b. MT<br />c. <br />d. <br /><br />MICRO<br /><br />66. Neonatal meningitis,beta haemolysis,bacitracin registant,camp positive,<br />a. s pyogenis<br />b. s agalactiae<br />c. s pneumoniae<br />d. <br /><br />67. Asthma,fila funi with septate hyphae<br />a. aspergilous<br />b. candida<br />c. mucor<br />d. <br /><br />68. Hyphe in nose at 45 degrees diabetic with fungal infn<br />a. rhizopus<br />b. mucor<br />c. aspergillous<br />d. <br /><br />69. Vibrio eltor wrong is<br />a. <br />b. <br />c. Toxin act other than int tissue<br />d. Human is the only resorvoir<br /><br />70. isolation of chlamydia<br />a. yolk sac inoculation<br />b. immuneagglutatin<br />c. <br />d. pcr<br /><br />71. fungus-wall stain invariably by<br />a. pas.<br />b. <br />c. alizarin<br />d. massn trichome<br /><br />72. In non mismatch transfusion done<br />a. direct coomb<br />b. ind<br />c. doner antibody<br />d. rec antibody<br /><br />73. Superantigen True A/E<br />a. Exfoliative Toxin Is A Super Antigen<br />b. Enterotoxi<br />c. Tsst Is A Super Antigen<br />d. <br /><br />PHARMA<br /><br />74. Pancreatitis occur with<br />a. abacavir<br />b. zidovudine<br />c. lamivudine<br />d. didanosine<br />e. idanosine<br /><br />75. All are drugs causin hirsutism except<br />a. phenytoin<br />b. danazol<br />c. norethisterone<br />d. flutamide<br /><br />76. Which is a ppi<br />a. ranitadine<br />b. <br />c. <br />d. omeprazole<br /><br />77. corticosteroid effective in which base/<br />a. ointment<br />b. cream<br />c. gel<br />d. lotion<br /><br />78. With rivastagmine which medicine can not b given<br />a. ssri<br />b. rima<br />c. tca<br />d. atypica anti<br /><br />79. Hydantoin sydrome<br />a. phenytoin<br />b. alcohol<br />c. <br />d. <br /><br />80. tyrosine kinase inhibitors are used in ?<br />a. GIST cd117<br />b. receptor mediated neuroendocrine tumors<br />c. <br /><br />81. Which is incorrectly matched<br />a. phenytoin - cleft lip and palate<br />b. zidovudine -<br />c. valproate - neural tube defect<br />d. <br /><br />82. Wilson True Is<br />a. Urine ceruloplasmin is dec<br />b. Blood cu dec<br />c. Blood ceru dec nd urine cupper inc<br />d. <br /><br />83. Not prophylactic use in migraine<br />a. propranolol<br />b. sumatryptan<br />c. <br />d. <br /><br />84. histaminic+antiemetic<br />a. metoclopramide<br />b. dom<br />c. promethazine<br />d. ondansetron<br /><br />85. Ampho b to be given how to decrease its toxicity<br />a. liposomal<br />b. <br />c. <br />d. <br /><br />86. Thalidomide not true<br />a. morning sickness tt<br />b. Causes Diarrhoea And Euphoria<br />c. has been reintroduced for enl<br />d. used for multiple myeloma<br /><br />87. hyperpigmntn after use for acne<br />a. tetracyline<br />b. doxy<br />c. azitho<br />d. mino<br /><br />88. narrow safety index drug...<br />a. Lithium<br />b. <br />c. <br />d. <br /><br /><br />89. Lithium teratogenicity<br />a. cardac malfomation....<br />b. <br />c. <br />d. <br /><br />90. phenytoin true a/e<br />a. saturable kinetics<br />b. Hypoglycemia<br />c. <br />d. <br /><br />91. Not a pyrethrum extract...?<br />a. permethrin<br />b. DDT<br />c. <br />d. <br /><br />92. Mycopentalate mofetil, true a/e<br />a. Prodrug Give Rise To Mycophenolic Acid<br />b. active comp<br />c. given along with STEROD ND CYCLOSPRN IN RENAL TRANS<br />d. highly nephrotoxic<br /><br />93. linezolid rx monitor<br />a. audiometry<br />b. renal function test<br />c. platelet count<br />d. lft<br /><br />94. Carbidopa given along with levodopa<br />a. prevents peripheral decarboxylation of levodopa<br />b. <br />c. <br />d. <br /><br />95. Resistance to penicillin in diffuse meningo coccemia having rash<br />a. chloroamphenicol<br />b. meropenem<br />c. teicoplanin<br />d. cipro<br /><br />96. Ethosuximide can be given in<br />a. gtcs<br />b. absence<br />c. complex<br />d. <br /><br />97. Drug not used in myoclonus epilepsy<br />a. Topiramate<br />b. zonisamide<br />c. Ethosuximide<br />d. carbamazepine<br />e. valproate<br /><br />98. Heparin induced thrombocytemia treatment ,but not completed<br />a. lepirudin<br />b. aprotinin<br />c. plasminogen<br />d. <br /><br />99. Theophylline Moa<br />a. Phophodiestetase 4 inhibitor<br />b. beta2 ago<br />c. <br />d. <br /><br />100. Penicillinn binding protein a/e<br />a. <br />b. <br />c. <br />d. <br /><br />101. All of the following are true about opioids except?<br />a. Naloxone is short acting<br />b. naltrexone used to lower craving in alsoholics<br />c. Nalmefen can be used in<br />d. Nalmefen Is Shorter Acting Than Naloxone<br /><br />102. Mao Inhibitors Not Given Along With<br />a. PETHIDINE<br />b. PENTAZOCINE<br />c. BUPRENORPHINE<br />d. morphine<br /><br /><br />Forensic Medicine<br /><br />103. lightening flash injuries because of a/e<br />a. direct effect of its current<br />b. burns due to superheated light<br />c. compressed air pressure before flash<br />d. expanded air around flash<br /><br />104. Primary impact injury common in?<br />a. head<br />b. abdomen<br />c. legs<br />d. chest<br /><br />105. Poisoning case of tumors ,increased salivation, blue line in gum<br />a. Mercury poising<br />b. PB<br />c. <br />d. <br /><br />106. Characteristic symptom of aconite poisoning<br />a. Increased BP<br />b. tingling &amp; numbness<br />c. Increased Salivation<br />d. Hypotension<br /><br />107. Death in 3yrs of married woman<br />a. 176 crpc<br />b. 174 crpc<br />c. 304 ipc<br />d. 306 ipc<br /><br />108. Bullet which leaves a visible mark in pathway so that person can see the<br />a. tandem<br />b. tracer<br />c. dumdum<br />d. riochet<br /><br />109. Commonly used in narcoanalysis<br />a. atropine sulfate<br />b. scopolamine hbr<br />c. opium compounds<br />d. 4 morphine<br /><br />SPM<br /><br />110. True about scrub typhus a/e<br />a. transmitted by r.tsutsugumashi<br />b. vector is trobiculid mite<br />c. adult mites feed from bite of vertebral host<br />d. tetracline doc<br /><br />111. ASHA works in<br />a. village level<br />b. phc level<br />c. chc level<br />d. <br /><br />112. JSY stands for<br />a. janani suraksha yojana<br />b. jana suraksha yojana<br />c. jana swasthya yojana<br /><br />113. NPCB strategy for screening of diabetic retinopathy..<br />a. opportunistic screening<br />b. high risk screening<br />c. ophtalmoscopic eye examining by diabetologist<br />d. mass screening<br /><br />114. Malaria incidence ,population 165000,after jan 1st incidence 22,prevance-220/6 month?<br />a. 13/1ooo000<br />b. 133/1000000<br />c. 27/1000000<br />d. <br /><br />115. True +ve 40,false -ve-80 ,sensitivity?<br />a. 50%<br />b. 33%<br />c. <br />d. <br /><br />116. To eradicate by 2015<br />a. filariasis<br />b. malaria<br />c. tb<br />d. <br /><br />117. Movement in socio economic level../?<br />a. social equality<br />b. socioeconomic upliftment<br />c. <br />d. <br /><br />118. Resurgent malaria due to except<br />a. antigenic variation in parasite<br />b. drug resistance<br />c. change in host registance<br />d. <br /><br />119. Perinatal mortality includes?<br />a. still birth+early neon death<br />b. abortion+early neon death<br />c. upto 42 days<br />d. <br /><br />120. Mass CHEMOPROPHYLAXIS not done in<br />a. yaws,.<br />b. Malaria<br />c. Tracoma<br />d. Leprosy<br /><br />121. MMR wrong statement<br />a. rate not ratio<br />b. denominator includes still and abortion<br />c. numeretor upto 42 day preg rel compl<br />d. <br /><br />122. Z score is calculated for<br />a. Normal distribution<br />b. Binomial<br />c. Chi square<br />d. t<br /><br />123. ARI tuberculosis a/e<br />a. currently 1.7%<br />b. denotes infection prevailing beyond control measures<br />c. 1% = 75 cases<br />d. <br /><br />124. In AFP follow up for residual paralysis is done after<br />a. 20 days<br />b. 30 days<br />c. 60 days<br />d. 90 days<br /><br />125. Rural Urban divide not seen with?<br />a. lung cancer<br />b. tb<br />c. chronic bronchitis<br />d. mental illness<br /><br />126. Community provides maximum participation in<br />a. resources<br />b. planning of intervention<br />c. need based<br />d. <br /><br />127. Not an element of primary health care<br />a. cost effectiveness<br />b. intersectorial cord<br />c. provision of essential drug<br />d. health education<br /><br />128. Newer concept of primary health care<br />a. Primary health care<br />b. community participation<br />c. <br />d. <br /><br />129. Confidence limits<br />a. <br />b. <br />c. <br />d. <br /><br />130. Red cross not true<br />a. established in 1960 in UNO<br />b. size of cross equal horizantally and vertically<br />c. Only UNO members use this<br />d. permission of government of India req to use<br /><br />131. Which was the first one to bring forward the primary health care proposal<br />a. bhore committee?<br />b. alma ata declaration<br />c. global forum for public health o some thing like that<br />d. <br /><br />132. Emotional valence<br />a. belief<br />b. Practise<br />c. <br />d. <br /><br />133. Difference b/w IMNCI and IMCI all except?<br />a. also incudes malaria and anemia<br />b. more stress on saving neonates than mild older cases<br />c. 0-7<br />d. on going immunization<br /><br />MEDICINE<br /><br />134. serotonin syndrome caused by all except<br />a. chlorpromazine<br />b. Sumitriptan<br />c. <br />d. <br /><br />135. Hyperglycemia associated with<br />a. mm<br />b. ewings<br />c. osteosarcoma<br />d. <br /><br />136. Truck driver patchy lung leision, DIFFUSE INTERSTITIAL INFILTRATION,non productive cough fever weight loss, oral white patch ,causative ageny<br />a. pneumocystis<br />b. tuberculosis<br />c. candidiasis<br /><br />137. hypoechoic lesions in spleen with fever for 3wks, mild splenomegaly,hypoechoic lesion<br />a. cmv<br />b. toxo<br />c. salmonella<br />d. tb<br /><br />138. which one not a/s with thymoma<br />a. siadh<br />b. myasthenia gravis<br />c. hypogammaglobulinemia<br />d. red cell aplasia<br /><br />139. case for pco2 30 n po2 102 ph 7.4<br />a. metabolic acidosis<br />b. met alk<br />c. rsp acidosis<br />d. rsp alk<br /><br />140. WHO primary criteria for polycythemia<br />a. reduced erythropoeitin<br />b. jak 7<br />c. <br />d. <br /><br />141. Kayser flieshner ring<br />a. wilsons<br />b. <br />c. <br />d. <br /><br />142. Case of xray with ptchy fibrosis ,fibroblasts proliferation<br />a. nonspecific interstitial fibrosis<br />b. CRYPTOGENIC FIBROSIS<br />c. <br />d. <br /><br />143. triad of gait abnorm,dementia,urinary prob<br />a. normal pressure hydrocaphlus<br />b. <br />c. <br />d. <br /><br />144. Boy with seizures,BP - 200/140 in upper limb femoral pulse not palpable..most likely diagnosis<br />a. takayasu's aortoarteritis<br />b. renal parenchymal disease<br />c. grandmal seizure<br />d. FIBRO MUSCULAR DYSPLASIA<br /><br />145. vaccant stare 20sec,<br />a. absence seizure<br />b. <br />c. <br />d. <br /><br />146. Past h/o APL synd ,tt<br />a. start low dose aspirin + lmw heparin<br />b. <br />c. <br />d. <br /><br />147. Beck's triad seen in?<br />a. constrictive pericarditis<br />b. cardiac tamponade<br />c. LVMI<br />d. <br /><br />148. Carcinoid effect on heart<br />a. fibro elastic degeneration of rt ventricle<br />b. tricuspid<br />c. <br />d. <br /><br />149. Mitochonrial enzyme-OF HEPATOCYTES<br />a. alkaline phosphatase...<br />b. alt SGPT<br />c. ast SGOT<br />d. ggt<br /><br />150. 20 yr old man is HBsAg positive.HBeAg negative liver enzymes SGOT, SGPT raised > 5 times the normal what is he suffering from?<br />a. wild type HBV<br />b. surface-mutant HBV<br />c. PREcore-mutant HBV<br />d. <br /><br />151. GBS except..<br />a. albumino cytologic dissoc.<br />b. ascending paraysis.<br />c. definite sensory leVEL<br />d. FLACCID PARALYSIS<br /><br />152. Motor neuron disease site of lesion...<br />a. spnicerebellar<br />b. ant. horn cell<br />c. <br /><br />153. Lesion to lateral cerbellum...except<br />a. resting tremor.<br />b. coordination<br />c. <br />d. <br /><br />154. VZ remain latent in?<br />a. trigeminal GANGLIA<br />b. <br />c. <br />d. <br /><br />155. Lung ca true is<br />a. 70% squamous cell ca<br />b. oat cell characterestic calcification<br />c. hilar adenopathy by<br />d. necrosis<br /><br />156. True trientine.except<br />a. more potent than penicillamine &amp; orlly absorbd<br />b. cause iron def anemmia which is reversible by oral iro supplement<br />c. alternative to penicillamine in non tolerant<br />d. not given with iron in 2 hrs<br /><br />157. S3 heart sound<br />a. asd, cons pericar<br />b. ventricular sys phase<br />c. <br />d. <br /><br />158. High grade fever, MRI - frontal n temporal lobe diffuse enhancement<br />a. hsv<br />b. <br />c. cmv<br />d. toxoplas<br /><br />159. Carcinoid of intestine.false is<br />a. rectum is least<br />b. after rese 5 yr survival 60%<br />c. <br />d. <br /><br />160. Female with mid sys click on auscultation<br />a. myxomatous degeneration ND mvp<br />b. <br />c. <br />d. <br /><br />161. Features of pseudo HYPOPARATHYROID A/E<br />a. low PTH<br />b. end organ resistance<br />c. low calcium high phosphate<br />d. <br /><br />162. Fragile vegetations seen in<br />a. inf endocarditis<br />b. rheumatic<br />c. rheumatoid<br />d. sle<br /><br />163. ALLOPURINOL USED IN<br />a. gout<br />b. <br />c. <br />d. <br /><br />164. Electron micros diagnostic of<br />a. alports<br />b. churg struss<br />c. googpas<br />d. wegner<br /><br />165. Parasite causing cholestasis<br />a. chlonorschisis<br />b. ank duodenale<br />c. ascaris<br />d. <br /><br />166. Plasmapheresis not done in<br />a. cholinergic crisis<br />b. myasthenic crisis...<br />c. aidp<br />d. <br /><br />167. Pt with hbsag poistive hbv no of copies 1000? hbeag neg, liver scan normal .diagnosis?<br />a. silent carrier<br />b. active case,<br />c. mutated virus<br />d. <br />e. ans-<br /><br />168. pt had left upper limb ischemia which slowly recovered over time<br />a. tia<br />b. ischemic stroke<br />c. <br />d. <br /><br />169. subararachnoid haem assesment<br />a. hunt n hess<br />b. gcs<br />c. modified gcs<br />d. <br /><br />170. RX of choice chlamydia in preg<br />a. doxy<br />b. tetra<br />c. erythro<br />d. <br /><br />171. adverse prognosis in a 24 yr old with head trauma?<br />a. hyperglycemia<br />b. hypothermia<br />c. hypocapnia<br />d. hemodilution<br /><br />172. b/l uretric stones with hydronephrosis.urea 220,cr 14.1.ph 7.45 best management in this situation<br />a. haemodialysis<br />b. <br />c. <br />d. <br /><br />173. 6month h/o frontal throbbing headache WITH NAUSEA AND VOMITING RELIEVED WITH SLEEP not given<br />a. na valp<br />b. proprn<br />c. ethosuccimide<br />d. <br /><br />174. raised PO4 and decreased Ca<br />a. reduced pth<br />b. <br />c. <br />d. <br /><br />175. lady progressive dyspnoea,clinical exam normal,fev1/fvc=90 FVC 88 po2 90mm,diag<br />a. anxiety<br />b. pulm edema<br />c. primary puln hypertension<br />d. ms<br /><br />176. perephheral art disease,obesity, CHD STROKE associated<br />a. insulin DEF<br />b. hypothyroid<br />c. estrogen<br /><br />177. A pt comes with hypoglycemia. Insulin high. C – peptide normal.<br />a. insulinoma<br />b. sulfonylurea excess<br />c. accidental insulin<br />d. <br /><br />178. High idio ventricular rhythm is seen in<br />a. reperfusion therapy<br />b. AV Nodal Ds<br />c. dilated cardiomyopathy<br />d. digitalis toxicity<br /><br />179. Cavitatory lesion In lung are seen in<br />a. Primary pulmonary Tb<br />b. Staph. aureus<br />c. Pneumococcus<br />d. <br /><br />180. Not a feature of prerenal azotemia<br />a. Urine na+>40<br />b. Urine osm>500<br />c. Fractional excr na+<1> 50 yrs<br />c. occurs at extraarticular sites more often<br />d. seen in sites such as knee and foot..<br /><br />220. About primary gouty arthritis NOT true<br />a. 90% cases are mostly due to overproduction of uric acid than under excretion<br />b. uric acid level is normal in case of a pt with an 30% acute attack of gouty arthritis..<br />c. more common in male/female<br />d. <br /><br />221. lift of sign, muscle?<br />a. supraspinatus<br />b. infraspina<br />c. subscapularis<br />d. teres minor<br /><br />222. medial meniscus a/e<br />a. medial miniscus is more mobile<br />b. attached more to tibial lateral condyle<br />c. <br /><br />223. gout results due to defect in which metabolism?<br />a. purine<br />b. pyrimidine<br />c. uric acid<br />d. hyperuricemia<br /><br />224. with aging a/e<br />a. proteoglycan content decreases<br />b. degradation increases<br />c. synthesis decreases<br />d. water content dec<br /><br />225. Triad of klieppel feil syndrome includes all except<br />a. low hair line<br />b. elev scapula<br />c. rest neck mov<br />d. short neck<br /><br />O&amp;G<br /><br />226. Maternal polyhydramnios at 20 wk<br />a. conganital diapphragmatic hernia<br />b. cleft lip<br />c. epispadias bladderexostrophy<br />d. <br /><br />227. Which is nt done in active management of3rd stage of labour<br />a. oxytocin<br />b. methargin<br />c. general massage of ut<br />d. control cord traction of placenta<br /><br />228. Methydopa use in-<br />a. pregnancy induces hypertension<br />b. <br />c. <br />d. <br /><br />229. A 40 yr old woman presenting with CIN III on pap smear..treatment of choice?<br />a. hysterectomy<br />b. colposcopy with leep<br />c. trahelectomy<br />d. conization<br /><br />230. pregnancy can b continued in<br />a. wpw syn<br />b. eisenmengers<br />c. primary pul ht<br />d. aortic dil with coactation<br />e. REPEAT<br /><br />231. best inv of choice for vvf<br />a. 3 swab test<br />b. ivu<br />c. rgu<br />d. mri<br /><br />232. Primary amenorrhea with normal ext genitalia,normal breast; normal ut<br />a. mrkh syn<br />b. turner<br />c. noonan<br /><br />233. A pt had a spontaneous abortion, then she came with amenorrhea and FSH 6miu/ml whats the most probably diagnosi?<br />a. uterine synaechiae<br />b. pituitary failure<br />c. regestation<br />d. ovarian failure<br /><br />234. mc associated with ca cervix...<br />a. hpv 16<br />b. <br />c. hpv 18<br />d. <br /><br />235. Sentinel node biopsy most useful for...?<br />a. ca endo<br />b. ca cx<br />c. ca vulva<br />d. vagina<br /><br />236. Which of the following is true abt multiple pregnancy<br />a. same sex implies monochorionicity<br />b. twin peak sign is characteristic of dichorionicity<br />c. monochorionic twins are separated by thick membrane<br />d. <br /><br />237. mc genital ulcer iin HIV..<br />a. chlamydia<br />b. <br />c. herPes.<br />d. <br /><br />238. partial mole true excpt<br />a. rarely causes persistent Gstn Tropho disease<br />b. triploidy<br />c. <br />d. <br /><br />239. lady with lower abd pain, increased constipation on stress on menstruation, 2 yr hist ,colonoscopy normal,diag?<br />a. ibs<br />b. endomet<br />c. ibd<br />d. <br /><br />240. pcod assos with all except<br />a. increased risk of ca ovary<br />b. ca endometrium<br />c. diabetes<br />d. osteoporosis<br /><br />241. What does not influence weight gain in pregnancy?<br />a. pregravid birth wt<br />b. ethnicity<br />c. socioeconomic status<br />d. smoking<br /><br />242. best indicator of female reproductive ability<br />a. ferning test<br />b. hormonal analysis<br />c. spinbarket pattern<br />d. vag cytology<br /><br />243. Indicator of neural tube defects<br />a. acetlylcholinesterases...<br />b. <br />c. <br />d. <br /><br />244. Intrahepatic cholestasis treatment in pregnancy...<br />a. choletryamine...<br />b. ursodiol<br />c. antihistaminic<br />d. <br /><br />245. Nuchal transluscency seen in<br />a. down<br />b. turnor<br />c. <br />d. <br /><br />246. Wrong about menstrual cycle in human<br />a. STEROID PROFILE<br />b. FERNING PATTERN<br />c. <br />d. estrous<br /><br />247. HIV trasmission prev a/e<br />a. cs<br />b. ap zidi<br />c. <br />d. not using methergine<br /><br />248. Not a sign of choriocarcinoma<br />a. plateau of HCG<br />b. ut enlargement<br />c. ant urethral nodule<br />d. persistent lutein cyst<br /><br />249. Non immune fetal hydrops<br />a. parvo b19<br />b. cmv<br />c. <br />d. <br /><br />250. All are used in shoulder dystocia except<br />a. Mc rober’s<br />b. supra pubic pressure<br />c. woods procedure<br />d. marriceu smellie viet method<br />e. REPEAT<br /><br />OPHTA<br /><br />251. Arden ratio<br />a. EOG (Electro oculogram)<br />b. ERG<br />c. <br /><br />252. Endophthalmitis include all except<br />a. vitreous<br />b. sclera<br />c. uvea<br />d. retina<br /><br />253. A person who has been wearing contact lenses for 1-2 monthscomes with h/o irritation in left eye.. diagnosis - keratitis.. corneal scrapings revealed presence of pseudomonas aeruginosa which was multidrugresistant.. how did it attain that level of resistance?<br />a. by horizontal transfer of genes from commensal bacteria of eye<br />b. improper contact lens hygiene<br />c. frequent and prior use of topical antibiotics / steroid preparation ??<br />d. biofilm production<br /><br />254. In corneal transplantation, which is true?<br />a. whole eye is preserved in culture<br />b. donor not taken if age more than 60 yrs..<br />c. hla matching done<br />d. ENDOTHELIAL CELL COUNT WAS DONE BEFORE TRANSPLANT<br /><br />255. Afferent pupilary defect...<br />a. optic nerve<br />b. <br />c. <br />d. <br /><br />256. Causes of cherry red spot in macula are A/E<br />a. Nieman Pick<br />b. GM1 Ganglioside<br />c. Tay Sachs<br />d. Gauchers<br /><br />257. least common condition .<br />a. macular dystrophy<br />b. lattice 1<br />c. lattice 2<br />d. granular<br /><br /><br />ENT<br /><br />258. Acoustic neuroma arises fm<br />a. Facial n<br />b. Inferior vestibular n.<br />c. Abducent n.<br />d. Superior vestibular n.<br /><br />259. All are correct ab8 nasopharyngeal ca except<br />a. bimodal age distribuion.<br />b. nasopharyngectomy with neck dissection<br />c. ebv antigen<br />d. squamous cell ca is common<br /><br />260. sodium fluoride acts in oytosclerosis mecha<br />a. inhibit osteoblast<br />b. useful only if pinkish TM seen<br />c. inhibits enzyme action in cochlea<br />d. <br /><br />261. Larngeal operation which laser....?<br />a. nd yag<br />b. CO2<br />c. krypton<br />d. argon<br />e. O2<br /><br />262. Drug localy used for laryngeal stenosis<br />a. mitomycin C<br />b. <br />c. <br />d. <br /><br />263. All are true regarding Traumatic CSF rhinorrhea except?<br />a. Fovea ethmoidalis is the commonest site<br />b. beta2 transferase is characteristic<br />c. Gadolinium enhance T1 w beat for invest<br />d. <br /><br />264. Extralarnygeal membrane a/e<br />a. hyoepiglo<br />b. cricotra<br />c. cricotra<br />d. cricothyROID<br /><br />265. Retraction of ptosis results from chewing cramming , condition<br />a. marcus gun jaw winking phenomenon<br />b. hornor<br />c. <br />d. <br /><br />266. Acoustic emesions are generated from><br />a. outer hair cells<br />b. inner hair cells<br />c. cochlea<br />d. <br /><br />SKIN<br /><br />267. White lacy lesions in oral,nail fold reached upto distal end<br />a. lichen planus..<br />b. <br />c. <br />d. <br /><br />268. t/t for erythematous rash in preg female<br />a. puva<br />b. corticosteroid<br />c. isotretenoin<br />d. <br /><br />269. Grey patches on back n menal retardn infantile spasms hypo pigmented patch<br />a. tuberous sclerosis<br />b. sturge weber<br />c. linear naevus synd<br />d. neuro fib<br /><br />ANAESTHESIA<br /><br />270. Speedy induction with intubation, on ausculation faint breath sounds,reason with intubation done .high etCo2 n increased airway pressure.with high bp<br />a. fentanyl induced chest rigidity<br />b. broncospasm<br />c. oesophageal intubation<br />d. <br /><br />271. Liver disease, muscle relaxant of choice?<br />a. atra<br />b. <br />c. <br /><br />272. Not true about succinyl choline<br />a. Onset of act within sec<br />b. No Post tetanic fade<br />c. Fasciculation<br />d. Train of four<br /><br />RADIOLOGY<br /><br />273. Egg-on-side radiographical appearance seen in<br />a. tof<br />b. tapvc<br />c. tricuspid atresia with vsd<br />d. completely corrected TGA<br /><br />274. Most ionizing radiation<br />a. alpha<br />b. beta<br />c. x ray<br />d. gamma<br /><br />275. Difference between X ray and light<br />a. energy<br />b. mass of photon<br />c. type of wave<br />d. speed<br /><br />276. Not seen in bronchoscopy<br />a. sub carinal node<br />b. <br />c. trachea<br />d. vocal cord<br /><br />277. To enhance dye contrast in renogram<br />a. dehydration of pt<br />b. increase conc dye<br />c. <br />d. <br /><br />278. In bone scurvy affects by<br />a. decreasing mineralization of bone<br />b. less formation of osteoid matrix<br />c. <br />d. <br /><br />279. CT scan room doors<br />a. tungsten/<br />b. glass<br />c. steel<br />d. pb<br /><br />280. What is background radiation<br />a. continuously present in earth<br />b. nuclear explosion<br />c. <br /><br />281. Stochastic effects of radiation means -<br />a. INCREASES WITH INCREASE IN DOSE<br />b. probability of occurrence is a function of their dose<br />c. severity of occurrence is a function of their dose<br />d. skin manifestations and erythema<br /><br />282. Measures ofradiation effect<br />a. Effective dose<br />b. Eqivalent<br />c. Absorbed<br />d. <br /><br />283. Which of the following is not a CT feature of adrenal adenoma<br />a. low attenuation<br />b. homogeneous density and well defined borders<br />c. enhances rapidly, contrast stays in it for a long time and washes out late<br />d. calcification is rare<br /><br />PSYCHIATRY<br /><br />284. anxiouslady with sadness+no h/o hopelessness. occasional palpitations.<br />a. mixed depression anxiety<br />b. mild depression<br />c. adjustment disorder<br />d. generalised anxiety<br /><br />285. Not a cognitive dysfunction...<br />a. catastrophysism<br />b. thought block<br />c. <br />d. overgeneralization<br /><br />286. A 30 yea old person thinks that his wife and boss have an affaire, he also thinks that his friend is also involved in this and he provides them with technological support. Otherwise he is normal. office reg 2 mon history<br />a. persistent delusion disorder<br />b. schizophrenia<br />c. paranoid personality disorder<br />d. acute and transient psychotic disorder<br /><br />287. Cognitive behaviour therapy, all used except<br />a. interpretation<br />b. punishment<br />c. exposure and response prevention<br />d. <br /><br />288. Alcohol paraonia A/E<br />a. fixed delusion<br />b. hallucination<br />c. impulsive behavior<br />d. Agitation<br /><br />289. Autistic disorder has all except<br />a. visual impairment<br />b. <br />c. <br />d. <br /><br />290. Cognitive enhancement technique all except<br />a. consolidation stage<br />b. precontemplation<br />c. practice<br />d. contemplation<br /><br />291. A pt feels that he has committed sins throught out life, he contemplated abt suicide but has not thought how to do it, he also consulted his spiritual guru<br />a. further session with guru<br />b. anti depressant with anti psychotics<br />c. anti depressant and behavior therapy<br />d. <br /><br />292. Pt doing self harm.in which of the<br />a. Followin he referred 2 specialist a/e<br />b. Causing harm in lone place<br />c. Having severe clinical illness<br />d. Severe depression<br /><br />PHYSIOLOGY<br /><br />293. A question was on bert effect- Bert effect is cns<br />a. manifestations of oxygen toxicity<div class="blogger-post-footer"><img width='1' height='1' src='https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/tracker/2608962106724577004-453772549938723825?l=hi5times.blogspot.com' alt='' /></div>ckanthnoreply@blogger.com0tag:blogger.com,1999:blog-2608962106724577004.post-9952289335970279232010-04-27T22:07:00.001-07:002010-04-27T22:07:51.862-07:00PGMCET 2010 - All Sujectwise Questions <br /><br />Anatomy : <br /><br />1. Winging of scapula is due to paralysis of which muscle <br />a. Serratus Ant <br />b. Latissmus Dorsi <br />c. trapezius <br />d. supaspinatus <br /><br />2. Paramesonephric duct in males gives rise to <br />a. prostatic utricle <br />b. prostatic urethra <br /><br />3. Which is not a tributary of Azygous Vein : R2007 <br />a. Lt Superior Intercostal <br />b. Rt Superior Intercostal <br />c. Rt Post intercostal <br />d. Accesory Hemiazygous <br /><br />4. Urogenital Diaphragm is formed by A/E : <br />a. Perineal membrane <br />b. Colle’s fascia <br />c. Deep transversus <br /><br />5. Meckels cartilage is derived from <br />a. 2nd arch <br />b. 1st arch <br />c. 3rd arch <br />d. 4th arch <br /><br />6. The counter part of seminoma in females is <br />a. granulosa cell tumor <br />b. dysgerminoma <br /><br />7. Erb’s palsy involves which part of Brachial plexus <br />a. Upper Trunk <br />b. Lower Trunk <br /><br />8. Thoracic outlet syndrome nerve root involvement is: <br />a. C5 C6 <br />b. C8 T1 <br />c. C6 C7 <br />d. C7 C8 <br /><br />9. Arch of Foot is maintained by : <br />a. Peronius brevis & peronius tertius <br />b. Peronius tertius & tibialis posterior <br />c. Peronius brevis & tibialis posterior <br /><br />10. 6th arch N is : <br />a. Facial <br />b. Maxillary <br />c. RLN <br /><br />11. Artery of 2nd Arch derivative is : <br />a. Maxillary <br />b. Stapedial <br /><br />12. Thumb Joint between carpal & metacarpal is : <br />a. Saddle <br />b. Synovial <br />c. Primary Cartilaginous <br />d. Plain <br /><br />Physiology : <br /><br />13. Which of the Following involved in iron absorption is synthesized by liver & secreted thru bile in the intestine R2009 <br />a. Apoferritin <br />b. Apotransferrin <br />c. Transferrin <br />d. All <br /><br />14. Laplace law all except <br />a. P = 2T / r <br />b. P = T / r <br />c. T = Pr / W <br />d. T = P / W <br /><br />15. Which does not occur as the blood passes thru systemic capillaries R2007 <br />a. Inc protein Content <br />b. Inc Heamatocrit <br />c. Dec pH <br />d. Shift of Hb dissociation curve to left <br /><br />16. Satiety centre is located in <br />a. dorsomedial nucleus <br />b. ventromedial nucleus <br />c. lateral nucleus <br /><br />17. Pain sensation is carried fastest by <br />a. C type <br />b. A alpha <br />c. A beta <br />d. A delta <br /><br />18. VC includes <br />a. IRV + ERV + TV <br />b. IRV + ERV + RV <br /><br />19. Ohm’s Law (i-current, e-eletromotive force r-resistance) <br />a. i = e / r <br />b. I = r / e <br />c. None <br /><br />20. Bruxism: <br />a. Stage II NREM <br />b. Stage I NREM <br />c. stage III NREM <br />d. REM <br /><br />21. Mean aortic pressure in newborn term baby: <br />a. 40/60 mm Hg <br />b. 75/50 mm Hg <br />c. 80/40 mm Hg <br /><br />22. Spirometry cant measure <br />a. ERV <br />b. IRV <br />c. TV <br />d. RV <br /><br />23. Minimum urine osmolarity by normal kidney: Repeat <br />a. 100 mosm <br />b. 50 mosm <br />c. 80 mosm <br />d. 300 mosm <br /><br />24. Intraperitoneal pressure in laproscopy to prevent hypercapnia : <br />a. <11 <br />b. <12 <br />c. <13 <br />d. <14 <br /><br />Biochemistry : <br /><br />25. Formation os OKAZAKI fragments occurs in R2007 <br />a. Transcription <br />b. Reverse Transcription <br />c. Translation <br />d. Replication <br /><br />26. Acrodermatitis Enterpathica is caused by <br />a. Zinc <br />b. Selenium <br /><br />27. Von Gierkes ds deficiency of enzyme : <br />a. Glu-6-phosphatase <br />b. Acid Maltase <br />c. Ms Phosphorylase <br /><br />28. Not a Complex 4 poison in ETC is : <br />a. H2S <br />b. Cyanide <br />c. CO <br /><br />29. Fluoride causes inhibition of <br />a. enolase <br /><br />30. Menke’s Kinky Hair disease : <br />a. Ceruloplasmin <br />b. Cu ATPase <br /><br />31. Besides protein what have catalytic activity: <br />a. DNA <br />b. RNA <br /><br />32. Chalones are: <br />a. regulator <br />b. operator <br />c. inhibitor <br />d. promoter <br /><br />33. PCR tests for: <br />a. nucleotides <br />b. antigens <br />c. antibodies <br />d. all of the above <br /><br />34. Niacin derived from: <br />a. tryptophan <br />b. tyrosine <br /><br />35. Sulfur donor in phase 2 reactions: <br />a. PAPS <br />b. GSH <br />c. SAM <br /><br />PHARMAC : <br /><br />36. MOA Abciximab R2007 <br />a. inhibitor of GPIIb IIIa <br />b. Inhibitor of adenosine reuptake <br />c. Anti thrombin III inhibitor <br /><br />37. Anti malarial Drug causing Neuropsychiatric Adverse affects R2007 <br />a. Artesunate <br />b. Mefloquine <br />c. Quinine <br />d. Artimisnin <br /><br />38. Sibutramine is which category of drug <br />a. cns stimulant <br />b. anorectics <br />c. cvs stimulant <br />d. pressor agent <br /><br />39. Drug therapy used for Neuroleptic malignant Syndrome: <br />a. dantrolene <br />b. bromocriptine <br />c. nifedipine <br />d. all of the above <br /><br />40. Mechanism of action of imiquimod used in anogenital wart improves the immune response <br />a. keratolytic <br />b. antifungal <br />c. antiviral <br /><br />41. Which opiod antagonist is given orally <br />a. naloxone <br />b. naltrexone <br />c. nalmifene <br />d. All <br /><br />42. 5hT3 antagonist <br />a. Ondesetron <br />b. Cisapride <br />c. Metaclopromide <br /><br />43. All hav active metabolites xcpt- <br />a. loratidine <br />b. azelastine <br />c. mizolastine <br />d. ebastine <br /><br />44. Reversible ototoxicity with: <br />a. clarithromycin <br />b. clindamycin <br />c. azithromycin <br />d. netilmicin <br /><br />45. Action of NO are A/E: Modified R2006 <br />a. Inhibits platelet aggregation by increasing cGMP <br />b. Inhibits platelet aggregation by increasing cAMP <br /><br />46. Least nephrotoxic : <br />a. gentamycin <br />b. streptomycin <br />c. amikacin <br /><br />47. Drug or therapy C/I in WPW syndrome with Atrial fibrillation: <br />a. digitalis <br />b. amidorane <br />c. procainamide <br />d. DC cardioversion <br /><br />48. Glucocorticoid receptor antagonist <br />a. mifepristone <br />b. misoprostol <br />c. ketoconazole <br /><br />49. Drug not used in neuropathic pain : <br />a. Gabapentin <br />b. Opiods <br /><br />50. Not a K channel opener: <br />a. diazoxide <br />b. nicorandil <br />c. amiodarane <br />d. none of the above <br /><br />PATHO : <br /><br />51. Crescents on HP examination of Glomerulusseen in : R2002 <br />a. RPGN <br />b. FSGS <br /><br />52. Single Most indicator of likelihoodness of rapid progression of hepatitis to liver cirrhosis R2007 <br />a. Serology <br />b. Etiology <br />c. Necrosis <br /><br />53. Increased mitotic index, starry sky appearance <br />a. burkitts lymphoma <br />b. MCL <br /><br />54. Most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in elderly: <br />a. minimal change disease <br />b. Ig A nephropathy <br />c. membranous nephropathy <br />d. none of the above <br /><br />55. All are signs of reversible cell injury except : <br />a. mitochondrial swelling <br />b. membrane blebs <br />c. cellular swelling <br />d. nuclear shrinkage <br /><br />MICRO : <br /><br />56. Selective Media for N.Gonnorhea R2009. <br />a. Thayer Martin <br />b. Loefflers <br /><br />57. Mycetoma caused by all except <br />a. Streptomyces somanliensis <br />b. Madurella Gresei <br />c. Phialophora jeanselmei <br /><br />58. Treponema pallidum was discovered by : <br />a. Robert Koch <br />b. shaudin nd Hoffman <br /><br />59. Ground glass hepatocytes in : Repeat <br />a. HAV <br />b. HBV <br />c. HCV <br />d. HDV <br /><br />60. Medium for naegleria fowleri is : <br />a. non nutrient agar and e.coli <br />b. nutrient agar and e.coli <br /><br />61. Not a halophilic bacteria: <br />a. v.vulnificus <br />b. v.parahemoliticus <br />c. v.agenticus <br />d. v. murim <br /><br />62. Elek's test used in ELISA is for: <br />a. C. diphtheria <br /><br />63. Rhabtidiform larva is seen in: <br />a. strongyloides stercoralis <br />b. ankylostoma duodenale <br /><br />64. Species of Klebsiella asso wid extremely Foul smell R2007 <br />a. K rhinoscleromatis <br />b. K zygomaticus <br />c. K ozaenae <br />d. K seeberi <br /><br />65. Wet India ink preparation is for : <br />a. capsule <br /><br />66. Parasite causing myocarditis is R2008 <br />a. trichuris trichura <br />b. trichinella spiralis <br />c. srtongyloidis stercoralis <br />d. ankylostoma <br /><br />67. Mebendazole is effective than albendazole in <br />a. trichiasis <br />b. ankylostoma duodenale <br />c. ascaris lumbricoides <br /><br />68. Tuberculate spores is characteristic found in R2008 <br />a. blastomyces <br />b. histoplasmosis <br />c. coccidiomycosis <br />d. cryptoccosis <br /><br />69. Hand foot mouth disease(HFMD) is caused by R2008 <br />a. parvovirus B 19 <br />b. enterovirus 71 <br /><br />70. Not a structural gene of HIV: <br />a. gag <br />b. tat <br />c. pol <br />d. env <br /><br />71. Malignant pustule seen in <br />a. B.anthracis <br />b. Ulcerans <br />c. Streptococcus <br /><br />72. 100 mg mebendazole 2 doses will clear <br />a. ankylostoma <br />b. ascaris <br />c. enterobius <br />d. each of above <br /><br />FMT : <br /><br />73. Conjunctival Congestion, inc appetite, dry mouth, tachycardia R2009 <br />a. Cannabis <br />b. Cocaine <br /><br />74. Marbling is seen in <br />a. 36-48hrs <br />b. 12-24hrs <br />c. 24-36 hrs <br /><br />75. Arborizing marks is seen in : R2005 <br />a. Chemical Burn <br />b. Electric Burn <br />c. Lightening <br /><br />76. Cephalic index identifies : <br />a. race <br />b. sex <br />c. age <br /><br />77. Surest Sign of defloration is : <br />a. Ruptured Hymen <br />b. Roomy Vagina <br /><br />78. Paederasty involves unnatural offence between adult male & _____ as passive agent : <br />a. Young girl <br />b. Young boy <br /><br />79. Doctor’s can examine a patient under emergency situation without consent under section : <br />a. 91 <br />b. 92 <br />c. 93 <br />d. 94 <br /><br />80. OPD Records preserved by a private physician for : <br />a. 1 yr <br />b. 2 yr <br />c. 3 yr <br /><br />81. Poison causing Vesiculation is : <br />a. Cantharidine <br /><br />82. La face sympathique seen in : Repeat <br />a. ante mortem hanging <br />b. post mortem hanging <br />c. Strangulation <br /><br />ENT : <br /><br />83. Abductor of vocal Cord R2009 <br />a. Posterior Cricoarytenoid <br />b. Lateral Cricoarytenoid <br /><br />84. All are seen in otosclerosis except : Modified R2002 <br />a. deafness after 40 years of age <br />b. paracusis willisii <br />c. schwartz sign <br />d. vertigo <br /><br />85. Masking phenomenon is due to: <br />a. all or none <br />b. post tetanic contractions <br />c. recruitement phenomenon <br /><br />86. In Jarjaway #of nasal bone, # line is : R2007 <br />a. Horizontally backwards <br />b. From front <br />c. Below <br /><br />87. 86. Opening of Eustachian tube is thru : <br />a. Tensor veli Palatini <br />b. Leavtor Veli Palatini <br />c. Salpingopharyngeus <br /><br />88. Caloric test for <br />a. Post semicircular canal <br />b. Lateral <br />c. Superior <br /><br />89. M.C congenital stridor <br />a. laryngeal web <br />b. laryngomalacia <br /><br />OPTHAL : <br /><br />90. Snow Bank exudates R2007 <br />a. Sympathetic opthalmia <br />b. Pars Planitis <br />c. Eale’s ds <br />d. Coat’s ds <br /><br />91. Gonoiscopy is use to measure <br />a. angle anterior chamber <br />b. lens <br />c. cornea <br /><br />92. Most appropriate lens for cross cylinder would be : <br />a. +0.5D Sphere & -1.0 D Cylinder <br />b. -0.5D Sphere & +1.0 D Cylinder <br />c. +1.0D Sphere & -0.5 D Cylinder <br />d. -1.0D Sphere & +0.5 D Cylinder <br /><br />93. Amsler Grid is used in : <br />a. ARMD <br /><br />94. Length of neonatal Eyeball is ____ of adult : <br />a. 70 % <br />b. 90 % <br />c. 100 % <br /><br />95. Herberts pits is seen in <br />a. spring catarrh <br />b. neonatal conjuctivitis <br />c. trachoma <br /><br />96. Rate of aqueos flow : <br />a. 0.8 <br />b. 0.6 <br />c. 0.4 <br />d. 0.2 <br /><br />97. Raised IO tension no inflammation <br />a. glaucomatocyclitic crisis <br />b. PACG <br />c. POAG <br /><br />PSM : <br /><br />98. High Priority or transferable cases in TRIAGE color <br />a. Black <br />b. Red <br />c. Green <br /><br />99. Interval between reciept of infection by a host & maximum infectivity of that host <br />a. Generation time <br />b. median incubation period <br />c. general incubation period <br /><br />100. 4 pairs of legs in which arthropods family <br />a. Insecta <br />b. Arachnida <br />c. Crustacea <br />d. All <br /><br />101. All requires arthropod vector for transmission except R2007 <br />a. Q Fever – <br />b. Rocky Mountain Fever <br />c. Scrub typhus <br />d. Epidemic Typhus <br /><br />102. HDI involves All Ex R2002 <br />a. Knowledge <br />b. Income <br />c. Longevity <br />d. Occupation <br /><br />103. Scrub Typhus is caused by <br />a. R tsutsugamushi <br />b. R Prowazekii <br /><br />104. India is in which stage of demographic cycle R2007 <br />a. High Stationary <br />b. High Expanding <br />c. Low Stationary <br />d. Late Expanding <br /><br />105. After vaccine rubella, how many months should a woman not conceive <br />a. 3 months <br />b. 6 m <br />c. 9 m <br />d. 12 m <br /><br />106. 105. LBW of Indian babies BW is less than R2007 <br />a. 2.2 kg <br />b. 2 kg <br />c. 2.5 kg <br />d. 2.7 kg <br /><br />107. 106. RNTCP Tb Pericaritis should be treated with which CAT of AKT R2007 <br />a. CAT I <br />b. CAT II <br />c. CAT III <br />d. CAT IV <br /><br />108. 107. Incubation Period of Mumps R2007 <br />a. 7-14 <br />b. 14-24 <br />c. 30-40 <br /><br />109. 108. Inhalation of sugarcane dust causes? R2000, R2005 <br />a. byssinosis <br />b. bagassosis <br />c. asbestosis <br />d. silicosis <br /><br />110. 109. chickenpox vaccine strain : <br />a. Edmonstan zagreb <br />b. Danish 1331 <br /><br />111. 110. Nalgonda technique <br />a. REMOVING FLUORIDE <br />b. Removal of chlorine <br />c. Addition of chlorine <br /><br />112. 111. Claviceps fusiformis causes <br />a. aflatoxicosis <br />b. ergotism <br /><br />113. 112. millennium development goals is for which year <br />a. 2015 <br />b. 2010 <br />c. 2020 <br />d. 2012 <br /><br />114. 113. fertility indicator taking birth and mortality rate both in account is <br />a. net reproduction rate <br />b. general fertility rate <br />c. total fertility rate <br /><br />115. 114. daily intake of cal in a 15yr old child is <br />a. 1150 <br />b. 1250 <br />c. 1450 <br />d. 1550 <br /><br />116. 115. Upper Limit of Exposure to noise unto which der is no damage to hearing? R2005 <br />a. 70 dB <br />b. 85 dB <br />c. 100 dB <br /><br />117. 116. Healthy Person who gets infection from another carrier is : <br />a. CONTACT <br />b. PSEUDO CARRIER <br /><br />118. 117. Under ESIS Act : <br />a. % <br />b. 1.25 % <br />c. 1.50 % <br />d. 1.75 % <br /><br />119. 118. MEDICAL EDUCATION AND SUPPORT MANPOWER COMITTEE <br />a. SHRIVASTAVA COMMITTEE <br />b. Kartar Singh <br /><br />120. 119. OVER period of time which is used : <br />a. LINE DIAGRAM <br />b. Histogram <br />c. Pie Diagram <br />d. Bar Diagram <br /><br />121. 120. Energy Required in Below Poverty line ppl in rural is : <br />a. 2100 Kcal <br />b. 2200 Kcal <br />c. 2300 Kcal <br />d. 2400 Kcal <br /><br />122. 121. Leprosy is said to be eradicated when incidence in endemic areas is : <br />a. 1/1000 <br />b. 1/10000 <br />c. 1/100000 <br /><br />123. 122. specific dynamic energy maximum in <br />a. proteins <br />b. fat <br />c. carbohydrate <br />d. vitamin <br /><br />124. 123. cmi is strong in: <br />a. BL <br />b. BT <br />c. LL <br />d. tuberculoid Leprosy <br /><br />MED : <br /><br />125. 125. In Alcoholics which vitamin should be replenished wid carbohydrates R2009 <br />a. B12 <br />b. Riboflavin <br />c. Thiamine <br />d. Pyridoxine <br /><br />126. 126. Patau Syndrome Trisomy of <br />a. 13 <br />b. 18 <br />c. 21 <br /><br />127. 127. Lymphocyte Predominant & Rich Types similarity is <br />a. EBV causative in 40% <br />b. CD 20 + <br />c. RS Cells <br />d. excellent prognosis <br /><br />128. 128. Cells found in intestine are <br />a. paneth cells <br />b. neuroendocrine cells <br />c. stem cells <br />d. all of the above <br /><br />129. 129. Ordhnof sign present in? <br />a. primary syphilis <br />b. secondary syphilis <br />c. tertiary <br />d. congenital <br /><br />130. 130. Megaloblastic Anaemia not responding to folic acid or B12 Rx is seen in R2007 <br />a. Cirrhosis <br />b. Orotic Aciduria <br />c. Antconvulsant RX <br />d. All <br /><br />131. 131. H pylori associated with <br />a. Upper gastric carcinoma <br />b. carcinoma of fundus and cardia <br />c. carcinoma of 1 part of duodenum <br />d. carcinoma of GE junction <br /><br />132. 132. Fibrin Stabilizing Factor is <br />a. XI <br />b. HMWK <br />c. XII <br />d. XIII <br /><br />133. 133. SLE causes <br />a. Lymphopenia <br />b. Neutropenia <br />c. Eosinopenia <br />d. all of above <br /><br />134. 134. pO2 satisfactory in pulse oximetry: <br />a. 80% <br />b. 90% <br />c. 70 % <br />d. 100 % <br /><br />135. 135. Diacrotic Pulse differ in Pulsus Bisferiens in R2007 <br />a. 2 palpable waves one in systole & other in diastole <br />b. 2 palpable waves both in systole <br /><br />136. 136. IRF is characterized by all except R2007 <br />a. RF index more than 1 <br />b. FeNa less than1 % <br />c. U. Na more than 20 mmol <br />d. Uc : Pc less than 20 <br /><br />137. 137. homocytotropism seen with: <br />a. Ig G <br />b. Ig A <br />c. Ig M <br />d. Ig D <br /><br />138. 138. D-dimer is seen in : <br />a. Pulmonary Embolism <br />b. MI <br />c. Pulmonary Oedema <br />d. All <br /><br />139. 139. MEN1 most characteristic feature : <br />a. Hyperparathyroidism <br />b. Gastrinoma <br /><br />140. 140. difference between renal osteodystrophy and nutritional osteomalacia: <br />a. hypocalcemia <br />b. hyperphosphatemia <br />c. hypercalcemia <br />d. none of the above <br /><br />141. 141. MEN 2A characteristic feature is : <br />a. MTC <br />b. Pheochromocytoma <br />c. Hyperparathyroidism <br /><br />142. 142. episodic hypertension seen with: <br />a. phaeochromocytoma <br />b. cushing's syndrome <br />c. conn's syndrome <br /><br />143. 143. MDR therapy of TB while giving AKT coz : <br />a. It reduces the dosage <br />b. Less duration of treatment <br /><br />144. 144. ecg in acute cor pulmonale: <br />a. S1Q3T3 wave pattern <br />b. afib <br />c. slow progressn of r waves <br />d. all of the above <br /><br />145. 145. site of action of PTH: <br />a. PCT <br />b. DCT <br />c. ascending limb of loop of henle <br />d. all of the above <br /><br />146. 146. The diagnosis in a person having hypertension and hypokalemia with a suprarenal mass of 7 cm: <br />a. Adrenal carcinoma <br />b. Cushings syndrome <br />c. Phaeochromocytoma <br />d. Conn’s syndrome <br /><br />147. 147. Klienfelter syndrome is : <br />a. 47 XXY <br />b. 47XYY <br />c. 45 XO <br /><br />148. 148. tendon ganglioma is <br />a. myxematous degeneration <br />b. neural neoplasia <br /><br />SURG : <br /><br />149. 149. strangulation is common in <br />a. richters hernia <br />b. femoral hernia <br />c. inguinal hernia <br /><br />150. 150. Strawberry GB : R2007,R2005 <br />a. Adenomyomatosis <br />b. Cholesterosis <br />c. Porcelain GB <br /><br />151. 151. Simple Rib # should be treated wid A/E : R2007 <br />a. Analgesics <br />b. PT <br />c. Early ambulation <br />d. Chest strapping/bandaging <br /><br />152. 152. cleft palate surgery for soft palate done at: <br />a. 12 months <br />b. 9 months <br />c. 6 months <br />d. 3 months <br /><br />153. 153. sarcomatous change is associated with: <br />a. increase in size <br />b. pain <br />c. bleeding <br />d. all of the above <br /><br />154. 154. M.C feature on benign breast Ca on usg <br />a. Microcalcification <br />b. popcorn pattern <br /><br />155. 155. M.C site of intraperitoneal abscess collection <br />a. Subhepatic <br />b. Paracolic <br />c. pelvic <br /><br />156. 156. Non Absorbable suture is : <br />a. Polypropylene <br />b. Catgut <br /><br />157. 157. well defined lesion with sooth margins and coarse calcification in lung : <br />a. hamartoma <br />b. adenoma <br />c. ca bronchus <br /><br />158. 158. mondors disease <br />a. superficial thrombophlebitis <br /><br />OBGY : <br /><br />159. 159. toxoplasmosis is harmful in which trimester <br />a. 1st trimester <br />b. 2nd <br />c. 3rd <br />d. Same in all trimester <br /><br />160. 160. Lovsets maneuvre in breech presentation <br />a. extended legs <br />b. extended arms <br />c. anterior shoulder <br /><br />161. 161. most unfavourable presentation is <br />a. occipito posterior <br />b. mento posterior <br /><br />162. 162. t1/2 of oxytocin <br />a. 9 min <br />b. 7min <br />c. 3min <br />d. < 1 min <br /><br />163. 163. hot flushes after menopause caused d/t <br />a. estrogen <br />b. FSH <br />c. LH <br />d. Progesterone <br /><br />164. 164. chadwick sign : <br />a. blue Vagina <br /><br />165. 165. conservative t/t ectopic tubal pregnancy <br />a. salpingostomy <br />b. salpingectomy <br /><br />166. 166. Yuzpe's method used for : <br />a. Natural IUCD Contraception <br />b. Natural Hormonal Contraception <br /><br />167. 167. Natural Suture for Uterus : <br />a. Inner layer of myometrium <br />b. Middle Layer of Myometrium <br />c. Endometrium <br />d. Perimetrium <br /><br />168. 168. 1st sign of puberty <br />a. Thelarche <br />b. Pubarche <br />c. Menarche <br />d. Growth <br /><br />169. 169. Manchester Sx is for : <br />a. Ca Cx <br /><br />170. 170. APGAR SCORE includes all except (Well this Q says APGAR Score & options of Bishop’s Score…Wrongly framed Q by setter) <br />a. Station head <br />b. interspinous diameter <br />c. Dilatation <br />d. Effacement <br /><br />171. 171. if baby not coming out what should be done <br />a. fundal pressure <br />b. traction on head <br />c. traction along long axis <br />d. pulling out thru shoulder <br /><br />PAEDS : <br /><br />172. 172. size of endotracheal tube in a 1500gm baby is <br />a. 2.5 <br />b. 3 <br />c. 3.5 <br />d. 2 <br /><br />173. 173. pre term baby mothers milk is deficient in <br />a. proteins <br />b. fats <br />c. lactose <br /><br />174. 174. A child can sit without support, speak mono syllables & transfer objects from one hand to another by what age <br />a. 3 mths <br />b. 6 m <br />c. 9 m <br />d. 12 m <br /><br />175. 175. In Kwashiorkar letter K is post Fixed to indicate : R2006 <br />a. Edema <br />b. Weight for Height <br />c. Muscle Wasting <br />d. Skin Changes<br /><br />SKIN : <br /><br />176. Coral red colour on woods lamp occurs in R2008 <br />a. erythrasma <br />b. ptyriasis rosea <br />c. erysipelas <br /><br />177. Munro’s Microabcesses seen in: <br />a. Psoriasis <br />b. Lichen Planus <br /><br />178. Erythema multiforme seen in all except..... <br />a. leprosy <br />b. h.simplex <br />c. sulfonamide <br />d. mycoplasma <br /><br />179. Chancroid is caused by : R2003,R2006 <br />a. H. ducreyi <br />b. Donovania granulomatis <br /><br />180. Not A Skin TB is : <br />a. Scrufuloderma <br />b. Lupus Vulgaris <br />c. Granuloma Annulare <br /><br />181. Not a NRTI <br />a. Nevarapine <br />b. Zidovudine <br />c. Lamivudine <br />d. Abacavir <br /><br />Anaesthesia : <br /><br />182. MR given in pt wid liver & renal Disease <br />a. Atracurium <br /><br />183. Which local anaesthetic produces methaemogloginaemia in children <br />a. lignocaine <br />b. bupivacaine <br />c. prilocain <br /><br />184. Which drug is eliminated by "hoffman’s elimination" and ester hydrolysis R2007,R2002 <br />a. pancurium <br />b. vecorium <br />c. mevacurium <br />d. Atracurium besylate <br /><br />185. Dissociative Anaesthesia is seen in which drug R2002,R2005 <br />a. Ketamine <br />b. Propofol <br /><br />186. What should be the internal diameter of the ENDOTRACHEAL TUBE in a child weighing 1500 gms ? R2007 <br />a. 2 mm <br />b. 2.5 mm <br />c. 3 mm <br />d. 3.5 mm <br /><br />187. Color of NO cylinder is : R2002 <br />a. White wid block shoulders <br />b. Orange <br />c. Blue <br />d. Grey <br /><br />RADIO : <br /><br />188. String of Beads Sign <br />a. CHPS <br />b. Crohns <br />c. Fibromuscular Dysplasia <br /><br />189. The SI unit of absorption dose in radioactivity is : R2006 <br />a. rad <br />b. rem <br />c. gray <br />d. Curie <br /><br />190. Double bubble sign appearance : R2006 <br />a. duodenal atresia <br /><br />191. Best method to visualise MECKELs DIVERTICULUM pre-op? <br />a. usg <br />b. barium enema follow thru <br />c. Tc 99 scan <br />d. xray <br /><br />192. X ray for infant of 7 months diagnosed by: <br />a. Wrist <br />b. Elbow <br />c. Knee <br />d. Clavicle <br /><br />Psychiatry : <br /><br />193. Bleuler’s four A of schizophrenia are A/E R2007 <br />a. Autism <br />b. Affect <br />c. Anhedonia <br />d. Association <br /><br />194. Diagnosis of Major Depression : R2007 <br />a. Loss of interest or pleasure <br />b. Insomnia <br />c. Recurrent suicidal ideation <br /><br />195. Mature Defence mechanism in OCD : <br />a. Reaction formation <br />b. Humor <br />c. Sublimation <br />d. Suppression <br /><br />196. MMSE maximum score is : <br />a. 26 <br />b. 30 <br />c. 34 <br />d. 36 <br /><br />197. When rhyming words are used: <br />a. Flight of Ideas <br />b. clang association <br /><br />orthopaedics : <br />198. 198. CTEV all except <br />a. more common in males <br />b. eversion <br />c. adduction <br />d. flexion <br /><br />199. 199. benetts fracture occurs in R2000 <br />a. 1st metacapal <br />b. 2nd metacarpal <br /><br />200. 200. anterior drawer test is use to detect <br />a. ACL tear <br />b. PCL tear <br /><br />201. 201. tumor which is metaphyseal, expansile, filled with fluid, more common in female is <br />a. osteoclastoma <br />b. chondroblastoma <br />c. bone cyst <br /><br />202. 202. anterior drawer test is used for : <br />a. ACL <br />b. PCL <br /><br />203. 203. Most Common benign tumour of bone is : R2007 <br />a. Osteoid osteoma <br />b. Chondroblastoma <br /><br />204. 204. Looser’s Zone is/are seen in : Modified R2003 <br />a. Osteogenesis Imperfecta <br />b. Paget’s disease <br />c. Osteomalacia <br />d. All <br /><br />205. 205. Dinner Fork Deformity is seen in # of: R2005, R2003 <br />a. Radius <br />b. Ulna <br />c. Carpal <br />d. Metacarpal <br /><br />206. 206. child <4 yrs old with osteomyelitis causative agent: <br />a. s.pneumoniae <br />b. salmonella <br />c. e.coli <br />d. h.influenzae <br /><br />207. 207. tom smith arthritis involves: <br />a. hip joint <br />b. knee joint <br />c. elbow joint <br />d. shoulder joint <br /><br />208. 208. Ulnar Nv damage occurs at : <br />a. Medial Condyle <br />b. Medial Epicondyle <br />c. Lateral Epicondyle <br /><br />ADDITIONAL Qs : <br /><br />209. 209. MNG + rapid increase in size + hoarseness of voice <br />a. follicular <br />b. Anaplastic <br />c. Papillary <br />d. Medullary <br /><br />210. 210. Globular Heart wid Pulmonary oligemia : <br />a. TAPVC <br />b. TGA <br />c. VSD <br /><br />211. 211. Wilson’s Ds : <br />a. Short arm of Ch 6 <br />b. Long arm Ch 6 <br />c. Short arm Ch 13 <br />d. Long arm Ch 13 <br /><br />212. 212. not usually painful: <br />a. chancroid <br />b. herpes genitalis <br />c. donovanosis <br /><br />213. 213. MCC of CAH <br />a. 21 alpha hydroxylase def <br />b. 17 beta hydroxylase def <br /><br />214. 214. lady with hypogonadism n prim amen <br />a. Turner’s <br />b. Kallman’s <br />c. Klinefelter’s <br /><br />215. 215. drug which inhibit cholestrol absorption <br />a. exetimibe <br />b. Nicotinic Acid <br /><br />216. 216. drug acting on all the stages of plasmodium falciparum : <br />a. PRIMAQUINE <br />b. MefloQuine <br /><br />217. 217. manning score in normal delvery : <br />a. 8-10 <br />b. 4 -6 <br />c. 7 – 8 <br /><br />218. 218. most common cause of uterine rupture <br />a. LSCS Scar <br /><br />219. 219. 2D ECHO UP AND DOWN MITRAL Flow <br />a. AORTIC REGURGE <br />b. MR <br />c. PR <br />d. TR <br /><br />220. 220. isolated increase in ALP in abscence of liver disease or raised serum bilirubin is seen in : <br />a. inflamm bowel disease <br />b. all of above <br /><br />221. 221. decreased leukocyte alkaline phosphatase scores are seen in all except: <br />a. CML <br />b. paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinurea <br />c. dermatitis keratoplasia <br />d. all of the above <br /><br />222. 222. multiple myeloma hyperviscosity is due to: <br />a. Ig G <br />b. Ig A <br />c. Ig D <br />d. Ig M <br /><br />223. 223. Neglaer reaction <br />a. Cl . septicum <br />b. Cl. Perfringens <br /><br />224. 224. PAM not for carbamate : <br />a. cant bind esteric site <br />b. cant bind anionic site <br /><br />225. 225. Pulmonary plaque + fibrosis on base of lung : <br />a. Asbestosis <br /><br />226. 226. cross resistance AKT : <br />a. INH <br />b. Streptomycin <br />c. Rifampicin <br />d. Ethionamide <br /><br />227. 227. Which Dissapears with time : <br />a. Strawberry Angioma <br />b. Port Wine Stain <br /><br />228. 228. At 21 C wid 80 % humidity maximum heat loss is by : <br />a. Convection & Radiation <br />b. Quiet respiration <br />c. Skin Sweating <br /><br />229. 229. Glomerulus of Cerebellum : <br />a. Granular Layer <br /><br />230. 230. Sleep Apnoea is present for: <br />a. 1 sec <br />b. 3 sec <br />c. 5 sec <br />d. >10 sec <br /><br />231. 231. reversal of non depolarizing : <br />a. neostigmine <br />b. pyridostigmine <br />c. physostigmine <br /><br />232. 232. p53 characteristic <br />a. Acts on p21 <br />b. apoptosis <br />c. Combination with specific p53 oncovirus <br />d. All the above <br /><br />233. 233. berlins edema : <br />a. After cataract <br />b. concussion injury <br /><br />234. 234. structure in central lobule of hepatocyte : <br />a. hepatic vein <br />b. Portal Vein <br /><br />235. 235. receptors for fall in bp located in : <br />a. rt. Atrium <br />b. lt. atrium <br />c. pulmonary art <br />d. all<div class="blogger-post-footer"><img width='1' height='1' src='https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/tracker/2608962106724577004-995228933597027923?l=hi5times.blogspot.com' alt='' /></div>ckanthnoreply@blogger.com0tag:blogger.com,1999:blog-2608962106724577004.post-66158840876162721792010-04-27T22:06:00.000-07:002010-04-27T22:07:01.375-07:001. Tinel's signhelpsin diagnosis of<br />a. Haemoperitoneum<br />b. Recovery of the injured nerve<br />c. Conjunctivitis<br />d. Thyrotoxicosis<br /><br /><br />2. Trail’s signindicates<br />a. Shift of trachea<br />b. Shift of oesophagus<br />c. Laryngocele<br />d. Pharyngealdiverticulum<br /><br /><br />3. The normal duration of puerperium lasts approximately about<br />a. 6 days<br />b. 6 weeks<br />c. 6 months<br />d. 60 days<br /><br /><br />4. Which cardiac disease necessitate selective LSCS at term?<br />a. Ventricular septal defect<br />b. Mitral stenosis<br />c. Mitral valve prolapse syndrome<br />d. Coarctation of aorta<br /><br /><br />5. Nerve supply of the papillary muscle, the sphincter papillae is supplied through<br />a. Third cranial nerve<br />b. Fourth cranial nerve<br />c. Sixth cranial nerve<br />d. Seventh cranial nerve<br /><br /><br />6. D shaped pupilis characteristic of<br />a. Traumatic mydriasis<br />b. Iridodialysis<br />c. Traumatic aniridia<br />d. Traumatic miosis<br /><br />7. Thedenguefeveristransmittedbythemosquito<br />a. Culex<br />b. Anopheles<br />c. Aedesaegypti<br />d. Mansonioides<br /><br /><br />8. Syndromicapproachis<br />a. Practicaltooltoimprovediagnosisandtreatmentofcardiac diseases<br />b. Treatment for pneumonia<br />c. Diagnosisoftyphoid<br />d. Practicaltooltoimprovediagnosisandtreatmentofsexually transmitteddisease<br /><br /><br />9. Branchial cyst<br />a. Mid line of neck<br />b. Upperandmiddlethirdofthesternomastoidmuscleatits<br />c. anteriorborder<br />d. Napeofneck<br />e. Upper one third along anterior tender of trapezius<br /><br /><br />10. Meckel'sdiverticulumisaremnantof<br />a. Thyroglossaltract<br />b. Midgut<br />c. Urachus<br />d. Vitellineduct<br /><br /><br />11. Non-unionisthe commonest complication of<br />a. Intertrochantericfracture<br />b. Collesfracture<br />c. Greenstickfracture<br />d. Scaphoidfracture<br /><br /><br />12. Which of the following is NOT a feature of tripledeformity: (displacement) of tuberculousknee?<br />a. Internalrotation<br />b. Externalrotation<br />c. Posteriorsubluxation<br />d. Flexion<br /><br /><br />13. Bagassosis means<br />a. Inhalation cotton fibres<br />b. Inhalation of sand particles<br />c. Inhalation of coal dust<br />d. Inhalation of sugarcane fibres<br /><br /><br />14. Human anatomical waste is disposed by one of the ollowing colour bag<br />a. Red colour bag<br />b. Yellow colour bag<br />c. Black colour bag<br />d. White colour bag<br /><br /><br />15. Which of the following is NOT anenzyme of Ureabiosynthesis?<br />a. Carbamyl phosphate synthase II<br />b. Ornithine transcarbamylase<br />c. argininosuccinase<br />d. arginase<br /><br /><br />16. Thrombomodulin-thrombin complex produce its anti-coagulant effect by<br />a. inactivating factor V and VIII<br />b. inactivating protein C<br />c. inactivating protein S<br />d. inactivating factor VII<br /><br />17. The normal A.V. Nodal delay is <br />a. 0.16 sec<br />b. 0.13 sec<br />c. 0.10 sec<br />d. 0.03 sec<br /><br /><br />18. Glomus tumour arises from<br />a. sub-cutaneous arterio-venous shunts<br />b. lymphatics<br />c. nerves under the nails<br />d. none of the above<br /><br />19. Thyrotoxic myopathy affects<br />a. muscles of the neck<br />b. proximal limb muscles<br />c. distal limb muscles<br />d. muscles of the tongue<br /><br />20. The most specific auto antibody associated with SLE is<br />a. ds-DNA<br />b. PCNA<br />c. cardiolipin<br />d. Clq<br /><br />21. Signs of shock<br />a. Hyotension<br />b. Bardycardia<br />c. Polyuria<br />d. Chest pain<br /><br />22. Infectious causes of Erythematous rashes<br />a. Measles<br />b. Typhoid fever<br />c. Yellow fever<br />d. Malaria<br /><br />23. Zollinger – Elllison syndrome is characterized by<br />a. Fulminating ulcer in stomach and duodenum<br />b. Recurrent ulceratin despite adequate therapy<br />c. Non-beta islet cell tumours of the pancreas<br />d. All the above<br /><br />24. Micturating cystourethography is used in the diagnosis of <br />a. Vesicoureteric reflex and posterior urethral valve<br />b. Purture urethra<br />c. Stricture urethra<br />d. Ca. of the bladder<br /><br />25. Sternohyoid is supplied by <br />a. C1 through hypoglossal nerve<br />b. Ansa cervicalis<br />c. Glossopharynegeal nerve<br />d. Hypoglossal nerve<br /><br />26. Criteria for diagnosis of Gardneralla vaginosis – includes all Except<br />a. pH more the 4.5<br />b. presence of clue cells<br />c. curdy white discharge<br />d. fishy odour when mixed with 10% KOH (Amine test postive)<br /><br />27. treatment for young unmarried nulliparous prolapsed<br />a. virginal hysterectomy<br />b. Le Fort’s operation<br />c. Shirodkar’s abdominal sling operation<br />d. Fother-Gills’s repair<br /><br />28. Unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia of new-born is caused by all Except<br />a. Criggler-Najjar syndrome<br />b. Cretinism<br />c. Septicaemia<br />d. Breast milk jaundice<br /><br />29. Pneumatocele is commonly found in case of <br />a. Staphylococcal pneumonia<br />b. Streptococcal pneumonia<br />c. Klebsiella pneumonia<br />d. Pseudomonal pneumonia<br /><br />30. Apoptosis is<br />a. Cell death induced by regulated intra cellular programme<br />b. Cell survival by a regulated intra cellular programme<br />c. Modification and adaptation by the regulated intra cellular programme<br />d. Cell death by an extra cellular signal<br /><br />31. Deposition of calcium in dying tissue is called<br />a. Metastatic calcification<br />b. Dystrophic calcification<br />c. Heterotopic calcification<br />d. Normal calcification<br /><br />32. Pyruvate dehydrogenase enzyme complex contains the following co factors Except<br />a. Thiamine pyrophosphate<br />b. Coenzyme A<br />c. Flavin Adenine dinucletotide (FAD)<br />d. Nicotinemide Adenine Dinucleotide Phosphate (NADP)<br /><br />33. The enzyme lipoprotein lipase is located at the endothelial layer of capillaries of the following tissues Except<br />a. Adipose tissue<br />b. Liver<br />c. Heart<br />d. Muscles<br /><br />34. Characteristics of epidural anaesthesia include all, Except<br />a. A decreased risk for post-dural puncture headache<br />b. A higher incidence of systemic hypotension<br />c. Ability to produce a segmental sensory block<br />d. A catherter can be placed in the epidural space<br /><br />35. The most common position adopted for surgical procedures is<br />a. Trendelenburg position<br />b. Lithotomy position<br />c. Supine position<br />d. Prone position<br /><br />36. Dermis is involved in the<br />a. First degree burns<br />b. Second degree burns<br />c. Third degree burns<br />d. Fourth degree burn<br /><br />37. Felty's syndrome associated with disease of<br />a. Thyrotoxicosis<br />b. Splenomegaly<br />c. Hepatomegaly<br />d. None of the above<br /><br />38. The drug Travoprost used in glaucoma is a<br />a. Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor<br />b. Selective beta blocker<br />c. Alpha agonist<br />d. Prostaglandin analogue<br />39. Radiological appearance of bamboo spine i<br />a. Tuberculosis spine<br />b. Scheurmann's disease<br />c. Ankylosing spondylitis<br />d. Reiter's disease<br /><br />40. Tumour arising from diaphysis<br />a. Osteosarcoma<br />b. Giant cell tumour (osteoclastoma)<br />c. Aneurysmal bone cyst<br />d. Ewing's sarcoma<br /><br />41. Klinefelter's syndrome karyotype is<br />a. 47 XXX<br />b. 45 XO<br />c. 47 XXY<br />d. 46 XX/45X0<br />42. The sago spleen and lardaceous spleen are condition seen in<br />a. Congestive splenomegaly<br />b. Auto splenectomy<br />c. Secondaries in spleen<br />d. Amyloidosis of the spleen<br />43. The effects of adenosine are potentiated patients receiving dipyridamole because<br />a. Dipyridamole is an adenosine uptake inhibitor<br />b. Dipyridamole is an adenosine receptor blocker<br />c. Dipyridamole is an adenosine receptor agonist<br />d. Dipyridamole is an adenosine deaminase activator<br /><br />44. Imipenem is marketed in combination with Cilastatin, a drug that<br />a. Inhibits the degradation of imipenem by beta lactamase<br />b. Inhibits the degradation of imipenem by a renal tubular dipeptidase<br />c. Inhibits the degradation of imipenem by carbonic anhydrase in renal brush border<br />d. Inhibits the degradation of imipenem by DNA gyrase<br /><br />45. The inhibitor of complex IV of electron transport chain is<br />a. Barbiturates<br />b. Antimycin A<br />c. Hydrogen sulphide<br />d. Dimercaprol<br /><br />46. The key regulatory enzyme in hepatic biosynthesis of heme is<br />a. Uroporphyrinogen decarboxylase<br />b. ALA synthase<br />c. Coproporphyrinogen oxidase<br />d. Protoporphyrinogen oxidase<br /><br />47. Normal body mass index is<br />a. 18.5 to 24.99<br />b. 15 to 18<br />c. 25.00 to 29.99<br />d. Greater than 30<br /><br />48. The following is one of the goals of National Rural Health Mission<br />a. Reduction of infant mortality to 60 per 1000 live births<br />b. Reduction of infant mortality to 30 per 1000 live births<br />c. Reduction of infant mortality to 10 per 1000 live births<br />d. Reduction of total fertility rate to 5<br /><br />49. Root values of deep tendon reflexes<br />a. Biceps jerk - C5, C6<br />b. Supinator jerk - C7<br />c. Triceps jerk - C8<br />d. Ankle jerk - L4, L5<br /><br />50. Frontal lobe function<br />a. Personality<br />b. Memory<br />c. Vision<br />d. Calculation<br /><br />51. The family where the parent have separated or divorced due to disharmony is known as<br />a. Problem family<br />b. Broken family<br />c. Nuclear family<br />d. Joint family<br /><br />52. The benefits of a health programme are measured in natural unit in<br />a. Cost effectiveness analysis<br />b. Cost benefit analysis<br />c. Cost utility analysis<br />d. Cost minimization analysis<br /><br />53. Signs of Diabetic ketoacidosis<br />a. Loss of sweating<br />b. Depression<br />c. Dehydration<br />d. Absent deep tendon reflexes<br /><br />54. Symptoms of hypoglycaemia<br />a. Sweating<br />b. Bradycardia<br />c. Chest Pain<br />d. Breathlessness<br /><br />55. Causes of polyuria<br />a. Hyperglycaemia<br />b. Hypoglycaemia<br />c. Decreased fluid intake<br />d. Hypocalcaemia<br /><br />56. Microalbuminuria is defined as<br />a. 0.3 0.5 mg of 24 hr urine protein<br />b. <0.03 mg of 24 hrs protein<br />c. 0.03 0.3 mg of 24 hrs urine protein<br />d. >2.5 mg 24 hrs urine protein<br /><br />57. Hyperthermia is defined as<br />a. A Core Temperature >40.0 °C<br />b. A Core Temperature> 41.5 °C<br />c. Elevated temperature that normalizes with Anti-Pyretic Drugs<br />d. Uncontrolled increase in body temperature despite a normal hypothalamic temperature setting<br /><br />58. Which valvular heart disease is most likely to cause death during pregnancy?<br />a. Mitral stenosis<br />b. Mitral regurgitation<br />c. Aortic stenosis<br />d. Aortic regurgitation<br /><br />59. Which is NOT true about Krukenberg tumour?<br />a. Presence of signet ring cell<br />b. The tumour does not retain the shape of normal ovary<br />c. Invariably bilateral<br />d. Primary carcinoma being stomach (70%)<br /><br />60. Hysterosalpingogram findings in tubercular salpingitis includes all EXCEPT<br />a. Bilateral cornual block with extravasation of dye<br />b. Rigid, non-peristaltic lead pipe appearance<br />c. Powder bum appearance<br />d. Tobacco powder appearance<br /><br />61. The other name for Dengue fever is<br />a. Break-bone fever<br />b. Chikingunya<br />c. Yellow fever<br />d. Kyasanur-forest fever<br /><br />62. Mild steatorrhea is caused by<br />a. Trichomonas vaginalis<br />b. Giardia lamblia<br />c. E. histolytica<br />d. Entamoeba coli<br /><br />63. Amoebic abscess caused by<br />a. staph. aureus<br />b. Entamoeba histolytica<br />c. Influenza<br />d. Echnococcus granulose<br /><br />64. Strawberry lesion of the recto-sigmoid result from an infection by<br />a. Staph, aureus<br />b. Staphylococci<br />c. Spirochaeta vincenti and Bacillus fusiformis<br />d. Gonococci<br /><br />65. Most common hallucinations that occur in Schizophrenia are<br />a. Visual Hallucinations<br />b. Tactile Hallucinations<br />c. Auditory Hallucinations<br />d. Olfactory Hallucinations<br /><br />66. Fear of being in places or situations from which escape might be difficult, embarrassing or in which help may be unavailable in the event of having panic attack. This condition is called<br />a. Social Phobia<br />b. Zoophobia<br />c. Acrophobia<br />d. Agoraphobia<br /><br />67. Hypoglossal Nerve supplies all muscle EXCEPT<br />a. Palatoglossus<br />b. Styloglossus<br />c. Genioglossus <br />d. Hvcglossus<br /><br />68. Commonly affected nerve in anterior shoulder dislocation is<br />a. musculocutaneous nerve<br />b. Radial nerve<br />c. Axillary nerve<br />d. Median nerve<br /><br />69. Stress fracture most commonly occurs in<br />a. Calcaneus<br />b. Metatarsal<br />c. Distal end of radius<br />d. Neck of humerus<br /><br />70. Insulinoma is the most common functioning tumour of<br />a. Pancreas<br />b. Liver<br />c. Gall bladder<br />d. Thyroid<br /><br />71. Causes of intestinal paralytic ileus<br />a. Pancreatitis and pneumonia<br />b. Peritonitis or abscess<br />c. Pneumonia viscera<br />d. All of the above<br /><br />72. The most sensitive and reliable indicator of health status of a country is<br />a. Maternal mortality<br />b. Crude death<br />c. Infant mortality<br />d. Perinatal mortality<br /><br />73. The content of iodine in iodized salt at consumer level should be<br />a. 20 starts per million<br />b. 15 pVts per million<br />c. 50 parts per million<br />d. 75 parts per million<br /><br />74. Familial polyposis coli due to<br />a. Abnormality of chromosomes five<br />b. Abnormality of chromosome<br />c. Intestinal tuberculosis<br />d. Intussusception<br /><br />75. Thyroid gland is developed from<br />a. Floor of the primitive pharynx<br />b. Larynx<br />c. Trachea<br />d. None of the above<br /><br />76. Paget's disease of the nipple<br />a. Superficial manifestation of underlying breast cancer<br />b. Galactocele<br />c. Eczema<br />d. All the above<br /><br />77. Richter's hernia<br />a. Is a strangulated hernia<br />b. Is a hernia in which sac contains a portion of the circumference of the intestine<br />c. When appendix is in the hernia sac<br />d. Is a sliding hernia<br /><br />78. Three bony prominence (triangle) of elbow Is Not altered in<br />a. Posterior elbow dislocation<br />b. Supracondylar fracture humerus<br />c. Intecondylar fracture humerus<br />d. Medial condyle fracture<br /><br />79. Blue sclera is a clinical feature of<br />a. Osteogenesis imperfecta<br />b. Marfan's syndrome<br />c. Down's syndr me<br />d. Morquio -Brailford disease<br /><br />80. Animal reservoir for swine influenza virus are<br />a. Field mice<br />b. Urban rats<br />c. Pigs<br />d. Calomys callosus<br /><br />81. A water sample is considered unsatisfactory by a presumptive coliform count when the count is<br />a. 1-3/100 ml<br />b. More than 10/100 ml<br />c. 4-10/100 ml<br />d. 0/100 ml<br /><br />82. The rectum measures<br />a. 18 cm<br />b. 22 cm<br />c. 17 cm<br />d. 15 cm<br /><br />83. Acute infections purpura fulminans is caused by <br />a. Neisseria meningitides and Varicella<br />b. gonococci<br />c. E.coli<br />d. Proteus<br />84. The causal mechanism in carcinoid syndrome is due to<br />a. Erythropoietin and Immunoglobulin<br />b. Serotonin and bradykinin<br />c. Insulin and Insulin like substance<br />d. ACTH and ACTH like substances<br /><br />85. Dohle Bodies seen in neutrophils of patients suffering from sepsis are<br />a. Golgi complexes<br />b. Toxic granule<br />c. Dilated endoplasmic reticulum<br />d. Degenerated mitochondria<br /><br /><br />86. The agent causing contraction of mesangiai cells is<br />a. Dopamine<br />b. PGE2<br />c. CAMP<br />d. Endothelins<br /><br />87. Which of the following is the most common type of Psoriasis?<br />a. Guttate psoriasis<br />b. Pustular psoriasis<br />c. Stable plaque psoriasis<br />d. Erythroderma psoriasis<br /><br />88. Progression to abscess formation in nerves is most commonly in<br />a. Tuberculoid leprosy <br />b. Borderiine lepromatous leprosy<br />c. Lepromatous leprosy<br />d. Borderline borderline leprosy<br /><br />89. Strawberry vagina is characteristic of<br />a. Gardnerella vaginosis<br />b. Trichomonas<br />c. Chlamydia<br />d. Moniliasis<br /><br />90. Tumour marker of choriocarcinoma<br />a. Alpha 1 Anti trypsin<br />b. Alpha feto protein<br />c. Human chorionic gonadotropin<br />d. Human placental lactogen<br /><br />91. Which of the following proteins does not cause secretion of gastric acid?<br />a. Acetylcholine<br />b. Somatostatin<br />c. Histamine<br />d. Gastrin<br /><br />92. All the following cancer commonly metastasize to the liver EXCEPT<br />a. Breast<br />b. Prostate<br />c. Colon<br />d. Pancreas <br /><br />93. ONE of the objectives in Revised National Tuberculosis Control Programme is <br />a. Cure rate of at least 85% among new sputum positive cases<br />b. Cure rate of 100% among new sputum positive cases<br />c. Cure rate of 50% among new sputum positive cases<br />d. Cure rate of 60% among new sputum positive cases<br /><br />94. The reason for presence of glucose in oral rehydration solution is<br />a. To give energy<br />b. To stop the diarrhoea<br />c. To kill bacteria<br />d. To promote the absorption of sodium and water from the Intestine<br /><br />95. Oropharynx manifestation of HIV infection<br />a. Oral hairy leucoplakia<br />b. Caries tooth<br />c. Cheilitis<br />d. Pharyngitis<br /><br />96. Manifestation of nephritic syndrome<br />a. Edema<br />b. Hypotension<br />c. Haematuria<br />d. Polyuria<br />97. Acalculous cholecystitis is seen in<br />a. Patient recovering from major surgery<br />b. Trauma<br />c. Burns<br />d. all the above<br /><br />98. 98. Cause of secondary brain injury<br />a. pyrexia and hypotension<br />b. Seizure and metabolic disturbance<br />c. Low cerebral perfusion pressure<br />d. All of the above<br /><br />99. Which of the following antidepressant is called selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor?<br />a. Imipramine<br />b. Amitriptyline<br />c. Fluoxetine<br />d. Desipramine<br /><br />100. Choose the antihypertensive drug that stimulates alpha adrenergic receptor.<br />a. Reserpine<br />b. Clonidine<br />c. Telmisartan<br />d. Minoxidil<br /><br /><br />101. Grave's disease is the most common cause of<br />a. Hypothyroidism<br />b. Hyperthyroidism<br />c. Thyroiditis<br />d. None of the above<br /><br />102. Plummer - Vinson syndrome it is an<br />a. Iron deficiency anaemia<br />b. Anaplastic anaemia<br />c. Vitamin deficiency<br />d. Increased haemoglobin<br /><br />103. Cardic output is its peak at<br />a. 30-34 weeks<br />b. 40 weeks<br />c. 36-38 weeks<br />d. 28-32 weeks<br /><br />104. "Snow storm" appearance is a USG finding seen in<br />a. Ectopic pregnancy<br />b. Hydatidiform mole<br />c. PCOD<br />d. Incomplete abortion<br /><br />105. At the start of inspiration, the intrapleural pressure at the base of the lungs is<br />a. 1.5 mm of Hg<br />b. 1 mm of Hg<br />c. 2.5 mm of Hg<br />d. 6 mm of Hg<br /><br />106. Binding of oxygen to Hemoglobin reduces its affinity for carbon dioxide is known as<br />a. Haldane effect<br />b. Chloride shift<br />c. Bohr effect<br />d. Anion exchanger <br /><br />107. All the following are cognizable offences, EXCEPT<br />a. Rape<br />b. Dowry death<br />c. Attempted suicide<br />d. Ragging<br /><br />108. The term "Professional Death Sentence" denotes<br />a. Rigorous imprisonment<br />b. Death punishment<br />c. Severe warning to the registered medical Practitioner by the Medical Council <br />d. Penal erasure of the name of the registered medical Practitioner from the Medical Register<br /><br />109. Division of long thoracic nerve results in<br />a. Inability to retract the scapula<br />b. Wasting of Pectoralis major muscle<br />c. Weakness of adduction of humerus<br />d. Winging of scapula<br /><br />110. Kayser Fleischer ring is seen in<br />a. Parkinson disease<br />b. Wilson's disease<br />c. Alzheimer disease<br />d. Hereditary ataxia<br /><br />111. Posterior staphyloma is seen in<br />a. Hypermetropia<br />b. Pathological myopia<br />c. Astigmatism<br />d. Presbyopia<br /><br />112. Caudal regression syndrome is seen in foetuses of<br />a. Diabetes mellitus complicating pregnancy<br />b. PIH<br />c. SLE complicating pregnancy <br />d. Syphilis complicating pregnancy <br /><br />113. 113 Bluish discolouration of vagina in early pregnancy is called<br />a. Osiander sign<br />b. Chadwick's sign<br />c. Godell's sign<br />d. Hegar's sign<br /><br />114. The indicator of water treatment efficiency and integrity of distribution system is<br />a. Presence of chlorine<br />b. Coliform test<br />c. Orthotolidine test<br />d. Biochemical oxygen demand<br /><br />115. Case fatality rate used to know the<br />a. Prevalence of the disease<br />b. Incidence of the disease<br />c. Severity of the disease<br />d. Control of the disease<br /><br />116. Waddling gait (Sailor's gait] is seen in<br />a. Bilateral CTEV(Congenital Talipes Equino Varus)<br />b. Bilateral CDH (Congenital Dislocation of Hip)<br />c. Congenital genu recurvaturm<br />d. Bilateral calcaneo-valgus deformity<br /><br />117. Radiological features of cupping of metaphysis is seen in<br />a. Rickets<br />b. Hyperparathyroidism<br />c. Multiple enchondromas - (Ollier's disease)<br />d. Senile osteoporosis<br /><br />118. A11 the following are clinical manifestations of Rickets EXCEPT<br />a. Delayed closure of anterior fontanel<br />b. Harrison's groove<br />c. Broadening of wrists<br />d. Microcephaly<br /><br />119. Which of the following is a live attenuated vaccine?<br />a. BCG<br />b. 1PV<br />c. DPT<br />d. HIB type B<br /><br />120. Pheochromocytomas are neoplasia derived from<br />a. Cluster of neuro endocrine cell called paraganglia in adrenal gland<br />b. Para ganglia in neck<br />c. An adrenal gland tumour due to nephrogenic rest<br />d. Primitive totipotential cell<br /><br />121. Partial mole are characterized by the following karyotype<br />a. 69 XXY / 92 XXXY<br />b. 72 XX / 72 XY<br />c. 92 XX / 92 XY<br />d. 45 XO / 46 XX<br /><br />122. All of the following clinical findings are consistent with severe mitral stenosis EXCEPT<br />a. Atrial Fibrillation<br />b. Pulsatile Liver<br />c. Opening snap late after S2<br />d. Pulmonary vascular congestion<br /><br />123. The most common cause of a pleural effusion is <br />a. Cirrhosis <br />b. Left ventricular failure<br />c. Mallignancy<br />d. d) Pneumonia<br /><br />124. Pain in inflammation is mediated by<br />a. Histamine and Nitric oxide<br />b. Prostaglandins and Interleukins<br />c. Interferon and free radicals<br />d. Prostaglandins and bradykinins<br /><br />125. Granuloma is characterised by<br />a. Focal accumulation of activated macrophages<br />b. Collection of neutrophils<br />c. Newly formed vessels<br />d. Collection of eosinophils<br /><br /><br />126. Which of the following class of medicine has been linked to the occurrence of fractures in the elderly?<br />a. Opiates<br />b. Beta blockers<br />c. Benzodiazepines<br />d. ACE inhibitor<br /><br />127. The Antidote for cyanide poisoning is<br />a. Atropine<br />b. 2-Pralidoxime<br />c. Sodium nitrite with sodium thiosulfate<br />d. None of the above<br /><br />128. Tetanus is caused by<br />a. clostridium perfringens<br />b. clostridium tetani<br />c. Staphylococcus aureus<br />d. Bacillus coli<br /><br />129. Hydatid cyst is caused by<br />a. Clonorchis sinensis<br />b. Echinococcusgranulosus<br />c. Wuchereria bancrofti<br />d. Ascaris lumbricoides<br /><br />130. Which of the following statement is true about gentamicin?<br />a. It is a polar cation and therefore it is very poorly absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract<br />b. It is not used in combination with all cephalosporin for the therapy of proven gram-negative microbial infections<br />c. Nephrotoxicity and irreversible ototoxicity are not the most important and serious side effects of Gentamicin<br />d. Gentamicin is effective for the treatment of pneumonia due to anaerobes<br /><br />131. Zolpidem is a<br />a. Benzodiazepine sedative - hypnotic drug<br />b. Non-benzodiazepine sedative - hypnotic drug<br />c. Barbiturate sedative - hypnotic drug<br />d. Phenothiazine sedative - hypnotic drug<br /><br />132. Good prognosis in metastatic malignant gestational trophoblastic disease includes all EXCEPT<br />a. Pre-treatment urine HCG levels < 1000 IU/24hrs<br />b. Metastatic disease limited to the pelvis/lungs<br />c. Metastatic choriocarcinoma following a term pregnancy<br />d. Duration of disease from termination of pregnancy to initiation of chemotherapy less than 4 months<br /><br />133. Swiss cheese pattern endometrium is seen in<br />a. Carcinoma endometrium<br />b. Metropathia haemorrhagica<br />c. Hydatiform mole<br />d. Halban's disease<br /><br />134. Intake of unpasteurised milk causes<br />a. Yellow fever<br />b. Brucellosis<br />c. Pulmonary tuberculosis<br />d. Enteric fever<br /><br />135. Haemorrhagic rashes are seen in<br />a. Malaria<br />b. Enteric fever<br />c. Meningococcal infections<br />d. Pneumonia<br /><br />136. The myocardial contraction is stimulated by<br />a. Influx of Ca+- ions<br />b. Influx of Na+ ions<br />c. Efflux of K+ ion<br />d. Efflux of Na+ ion<br /><br />137. Corrected QT (QTc) is<br />a. 0.12- 2 sec<br />b. 0.5 sec<br />c. 2 to 3 sec<br />d. < 0.46 sec<br /><br />138. One of the following is NOT a Pervasive Developmental disorder<br />a. Autistic disorder<br />b. Conduct disorder<br />c. Asperger's disorder<br />d. Rett's disorder<br /><br />139. Ionizing radiation is the substance which ionizes the atoms when it passes. It is harmful for Biological matter. Which of the following is a Non-ionizing modality?<br />a. Conventional X -ray<br />b. Computerized Tomography<br />c. Magnetic Resonance Imaging<br />d. Isotopic Scanning<br /><br />140. Doppler effect is due to<br />a. Change in frequency in relative to the movement of source or observer<br />b. Change in attenuation<br />c. Change in absorption<br />d. Change in reverberation<br /><br />141. Common cause of chronic renal failure<br />a. Hypotension<br />b. Hypertension<br />c. Diabetes insipidus<br />d. Malaria<br /><br />142. Causes of transudate pleural effusion<br />a. Nephritic syndrome<br />b. tuberculosis<br />c. pneumonia<br />d. plumonary infarction<br /><br />143. In Barrett's oesophagus lining is<br />a. Squamous cell epithelium<br />b. Transitional cell epithelium<br />c. Mucous secreting columnar cell epithelium<br />d. None of the above<br /><br />144. The most common indication of liver transplantation in adult is<br />a. Portal vein thrombosis<br />b. Cirrhosis<br />c. Biliary atresia<br />d. None of the above<br /><br />145. Commonest cause of nephritic syndrome in children <br />a. Minimal change disease<br />b. Membranous GN<br />c. Ig A nephropathy<br />d. Mesangio proliferative GN<br /><br />146. All of the following causes jaundice at birth or within 24 hours EXCEPT<br />a. Physiological jaundice<br />b. Haemolytic disease of the new-born<br />c. Criggler - Najjar syndrome<br />d. Intrauterine infections (TORCH)<br /><br />147. Judicial electrocution is carried out in<br />a. United kindom<br />b. India<br />c. Italy<br />d. some states in U.S.A. <br /><br />148. Imaginary threads are pulled from the tips of finger in poisoning by<br />a. Cocaine<br />b. Datura<br />c. Aconite<br />d. Cannabis<br /><br />149. Features of exudates pleural effusion<br />a. Pleural fluid protein: Serum protein ratio 0.5<br />b. Pleural fluid protein: Serum protein ratio 0.8<br />c. Pleural fluid protein: Serum protein ratio < 0.5<br />d. Pleural fluid protein: Serum protein ratio 1.0<br /><br />150. Features of metabolic syndrome<br />a. Hypoinsulinaemia<br />b. High HDL cholesterol<br />c. Hyperinsulinaemia<br />d. Type 1 Diabetes mellitus<br /><br />151. Which anti-hypertensive drug is avoided in pregnancy?<br />a. Enalapril<br />b. Labetalol<br />c. Sodium nitroprusside<br />d. Methyldopa<br /><br />152. Methergin is avoided in all EXCEPT<br />a. PIH<br />b. Rh negative pregnancy<br />c. Anaemia complicating pregnancy<br />d. Heart disease complicating pregnancy<br /><br />153. which of the following joint are typically spared in osteoarthritis?<br />a. Ankle<br />b. Knee<br />c. Hip<br />d. Cervical spine<br /><br />154. What is the most common Extra-Articular manifestation of ankylosing spondylosis?<br />a. Anterior uveitis<br />b. Aortic regurgitation<br />c. Cataract<br />d. Inflammatory bowel disease<br /><br />155. One of the following is NOT a feature of Dementia <br />a. Failing Memory<br />b. Impaired judgement<br />c. Clouding of consciousness<br />d. Alteration in Mood and Affect<br /><br />156. Delirium Tremens (DT) is related to<br />a. Alcohol withdrawal<br />b. Opioid withdrawal<br />c. Cocaine withdrawal<br />d. Cannabis withdrawal<br /><br />157. Apple jelly nodules on the nasal septum are seen in<br />a. Syphilis<br />b. Scleroma<br />c. Lupus Vulgaris<br />d. Leprosy<br /><br />158. 158 Bernouilli's principle is responsible for<br />a. Deviated Nasal Septum<br />b. Malignancy<br />c. Polyp Formation<br />d. Nasal Allergy<br /><br />159. Lithotripsy is the equipment used to crush the stones<br />a. High frequency (CW) US used<br />b. High frequency pulsed wave<br />c. Low frequency continuous wave<br />d. Medium range (2-5 MHz) pulsed wave are used<br /><br />160. Warthin's tumour found in<br />a. Salivary gland<br />b. Thyroid gland<br />c. Brunner's gland<br />d. Adrenal gland<br /><br />161. ERCP is used in diagnosis for<br />a. Pancreatic and biliary duct dilatation<br />b. Peptic ulcer<br />c. C.A. stomach<br />d. Secondaries liver<br /><br />162. Fully embryonated egg of Trichuris trichura contain<br />a. Eight blastomeres<br />b. Unsegmented ova<br />c. Rhabditiform larva<br />d. Ciliated embryo<br /><br />163. Jock itch is caused by<br />a. Tinea pedis<br />b. Tinea capitis<br />c. Tinea unguium<br />d. Tinea cruris<br /><br />164. Cricothyroid muscle is supplied by<br />a. Recurrent Laryngeal nerve<br />b. Inferior Laryngeal nerve<br />c. Superior Laryngeal Nerve<br />d. Nerve of Galen<br /><br />165. The most common organism found in malignant otitis externa is<br />a. Staphylococcus<br />b. Streptococcus<br />c. Pseudomonas<br />d. Proteus<br /><br />166. Bishop's score include all EXCEPT<br />a. Cervical dilatation<br />b. FHR<br />c. Station of foetal head<br />d. Consistency of Cervix<br /><br />167. The concentrations of HCG in normal pregnancy is maximum at<br />a. 6 weeks of gestation<br />b. 10 weeks of gestation<br />c. 20 weeks of gestation<br />d. Term<br /><br />168. The period of validity, of an international certificate of yellow<br />a. fever vaccination is<br />b. five years<br />c. fifteen years<br />d. Twenty years<br />e. Ten years<br /><br />169. The following is an important indicator to measure the incidence of malaria in a community<br />a. Annual falciparum incidence<br />b. Slide positivity rate<br />c. Infant parasite rate<br />d. Annual parasite incidence<br /><br />170. Exenatide is effective in lowering<br />a. Ionized serum Ca2+<br />b. Lead in plasma<br />c. Hemoglobin Alc<br />d. Iron in plasma<br /><br />171. Which of the following is NOT a therapeutic use of prostaglandin?<br />a. Therapeutic abortion<br />b. Gastric cytoprotection<br />c. Crohn's disease<br />d. Impotent patients who do not have disorders of the vascular system<br /><br />172. Dribbling of saliva from the angle of mouth suggest<br />a. Ante mortem hanging<br />b. Ante mortem Drowning<br />c. Manual Strangulation<br />d. Ante mortem Burn<br /><br />173. Endotoxin is part of the outer portion of the cell wall of<br />a. Gram positive bacteria<br />b. Gram negative bacteria<br />c. Candida albicans<br />d. All the above<br /><br />174. Which of the following is a cytophilic antibody?<br />a. IgM<br />b. IgA<br />c. IgE<br />d. IgG<br /><br />175. Which of the following structure is NOT present in lesser omentum?<br />a. Portal vein<br />b. Hepatic artery<br />c. Bile duct<br />d. Inferior vena cava<br /><br /><br />176. High stepping gait is a feature of<br />a. Cerebellar involvement<br />b. Posterior column damage<br />c. Foot drop<br />d. Frontal lobe involvement<br /><br />177. In the developed world, sero-prevalance of Helicobacter pylori infection is currently<br />a. Decreasing<br />b. Increasing<br />c. Staying the same<br />d. Unknown <br /><br />178. The physical quality of life index takes into consideration the following components <br />a. Infant mortality, life expectancy at age one and literacy rate<br />b. Infant mortality, life expectancy at birth and literacy rate<br />c. Infant mortality and maternal mortality<br />d. Perinatal mortality and literacy rate<br /><br />179. In demographic cycle, India is in one of the following stage<br />a. Pre transition stage<br />b. Early transition stage<br />c. Mid transition stage<br />d. Declining stage<br /><br />180. Gas gangrene is caused by<br />a. Gaseous disinfectants<br />b. CI. perfringens<br />c. Gaspak system<div class="blogger-post-footer"><img width='1' height='1' src='https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/tracker/2608962106724577004-6615884087616272179?l=hi5times.blogspot.com' alt='' /></div>ckanthnoreply@blogger.com1tag:blogger.com,1999:blog-2608962106724577004.post-68961752098640959072010-04-27T22:01:00.000-07:002010-04-27T22:05:50.952-07:00JIPMER 2010 QUESTIONS <br /><br />1. Fishnet appearance in immuno florescence is seen in <br />a. pemphigus vulgaris <br />b. bullous pemphigoid<br />c. dermatitis herpetiformis <br />d. pemphigus vulgaris <br /><br />2. which of these wil kill spores? <br />a. alcohol <br />b. phenol <br />c. chlorine <br />d. aldehyde <br /><br />3. superficial inguinal ring is a defact in <br />a. EO aponeurosis <br /><br />4. joint between epiphysis and diaphysis? <br />a. syndesmosis <br />b. synchondrosis <br />c. fibrous joint <br />d. plain synovial joint <br /><br />5. AMYLOID DEPOSITS is seen in which thyroid malignancy <br />a. medullary ca <br /><br />6. plasma potassium con raised with <br />a. succinyl choline <br />b. atracurium <br />c. pancuronium <br /><br />7. 60 yrs diabetic, swelling ankle joint ,X-ray shows soft tissue swelling, loose bodies and bony sclerosis. diagnosis is <br />a. OA <br />b. neuropathic joint <br />c. gouty arthritis <br />d. <br /><br />8. secondary brain injury seen in <br />a. concussion <br />b. diffuse axonal surgery <br />c. depressed skul fracture <br />d. intracrebral hematoma <br /><br />9. Methotexate is an <br />a. antimetabolite(answer) <br />b. alkylating agent <br /><br />10. immune complex disease seen in which hypersensitivity? <br />a. type 1 <br />b. type 2 <br />c. type 3 <br />d. type 4 <br /><br />11. 1 cm coin lesion seen on chest x ray right upper lobe..FNAC shows adenocarcinom. management- <br />a. excision and observation <br />b. excision and chemotherapy <br />c. neoadjuvant chemotherapy followed by excision <br />d. ??? <br /><br />12. all are seen in dermatomyositis except <br />a. gottrons papules <br />b. shawl sign <br />c. calcinosis cutis <br /><br />13. rieters disease is associated with <br />a. psedomanas auerignosa <br />b. staph aureus <br />c. strept pyo <br /><br />14. not a disease with mitochondrial inheritance- <br />a. leber's hereditary neuropathy <br />b. myotonia congenita <br />c. kayre searns disease <br />d. ? <br /><br />15. true about squamous cell cancer of anal canal <br />a. 1.abdominoperineal resection <br />b. 2.wide excision with chemotherapy <br />c. 3.chemo n radio <br /><br />16. All of the following are required for glycogen phosphorylase iin glycogenolysis?? <br />a. thiamine <br />b. riboflavin <br />c. FAD <br />d. thfa <br /><br />17. primary and secondary prevention of a disease is done for <br />a. control <br />b. eradication <br />c. elimination <br />d. surrvielence <br /><br />18. magnesium sulphate contraindicated in <br />a. placenta previa <br />b. pre eclampsia <br />c. epilepsy <br />d. myasthenia gravis <br /><br />19. prevalance of thyroid program <br />a. neonatal thyroid level <br />b. urinary thyroxin level <br /><br />20. drugs used by all route oral nasal IV..... <br />a. thiopent <br />b. diazepam <br />c. ketamine <br /><br />21. drug used to prevent nausea and vomiting <br />a. propofal <br /><br />22. drug produced haematological problem <br />a. nitrous oxide <br /><br />23. which of the following not a glycoprotein? <br />a. FSH <br />b. LH <br />c. TSH <br />d. ADH <br /><br />24. colour of urine in phenol poisoning? <br />a. red <br />b. green <br />c. yellow <br />d. blue <br /><br />25. A doctor leaves a swab in abdomen during surgery. under which doctrine wil a criminal suit be filed against him? <br />a. criminal negligence <br />b. civil negligence <br />c. res ispa loquitor <br />d. vicarious liability <br /><br />26. A civil suit against a doctor must be filed within <br />a. 6 months <br />b. 1 year <br />c. 2 years <br />d. 4 year <br /><br />27. Disease produces cell wall fragility <br />a. HS <br /><br />28. not present at birth? <br />a. malleus <br />b. incus <br />c. stapes <br />d. petrous temporal bone <br /><br />29. To prevent bleeding after IUCD <br />a. aspirin <br />b. progesterone only pill <br />c. combined oral pills <br />d. tranexamic acid <br /><br />30. OC pills prevent all except <br />a. ca colon <br />b. ca endometrium ANS <br />c. ca breast <br /><br />31. short head of biceps atttached to <br />a. coracoid process-ans <br />b. supraglenoid tubercle <br />c. acromion process <br />d. bicipital groove <br /><br />32. fracture of 1st metacarpal <br />a. boxer barton <br /><br />33. least common joint affected by ankylosing spondylitis <br />a. temporomandibular joint- ans <br /><br />34. Snuff box not formed by <br />a. Ext pollicis longus <br />b. Ext pollicis brevis <br />c. Abd pollicis longus <br />d. Abd pollicis brevis <br /><br />35. primary amenorrhoea is seen in all except <br />a. kallman syndrome <br />b. rokitansky syndrome <br />c. ashermann syndrome <br />d. turner's syndrome <br /><br />36. type of anemia in H.PYLORI infection? <br />a. sideroblastic iron def. cmacrocytic <br /><br />37. Middle ear cavity is connected anteriorly to <br />a. nasal cavity <br />b. pharynx <br />c. mastoid antrum <br />d. mastoid air cells <br /><br />38. scarpa's fascia merges with <br />a. inguinal ligament <br />b. conjoint tendon <br />c. tensor fascia lata <br />d. pubic creast <br /><br />39. Not a branch of facial nerve? <br />a. chorda tympani <br />b. lingual nerve <br />c. greater superficial petrosal nerve <br />d. ??? <br /><br />40. chronic myeloproliferative disorder includes all except <br />a. cml <br />b. polycy.vera <br />c. ess.thrombocytosis <br />d. <br /><br />41. not a content of adductor canal <br />a. femoral artery <br />b. femoral vein <br />c. saphenous nerve <br /><br />42. True regarding Warthin's tumor <br />a. shows hot spot on tc scan <br />b. most common tr of minor salivary glands <br />c. most malignant tumor <br />d. <br /><br />43. True regarding Warthin's tumor <br />a. shows hot spot on tc scan <br />b. most common tr of minor salivary glands <br />c. most malignant tumor <br />d. <br /><br />44. nerve supply of tensor facia lata? <br />a. sup gluteal nerve <br />b. inf gluteal nerve <br />c. ?? <br /><br />45. vitamin B12 and folic acid absorption occurs in <br />a. duodenum <br />b. jejunum <br />c. ileum <br />d. colon <br /><br />46. which amino acid undergoes hepatic deamination? <br />a. alanine <br />b. glutamate <br />c. aspartate <br />d. glycine <br /><br />47. tumor marker for dysgerminoma <br />a. ldh <br />b. cea <br />c. ca 19 <br />d. ca 125 <br /><br />48. sinus located in falx cerebelli <br />a. sigmoid sinus <br />b. straight sinus <br />c. ?? <br />d. ?? <br /><br />49. mechanism of action of thioglitazones(rosi and pio) <br />a. increased peripheral utilisation of glucose <br />b. acting on receptors of b cell <br />c. increasing insulin secretion <br /><br />50. muscle not supplied by ansa cervicalis? <br />a. stylohyoid <br />b. sternothyroid <br />c. sternohyoid <br />d. omohyoid <br /><br />51. inhibin secreted by <br />a. granulosa cell <br />b. theca cell <br />c. corpus leuteum <br />d. deciduas <br /><br />52. most common cause of spontaneous abortions in first trimester <br />a. chromosomal anomalies <br />b. uterine anomalies <br />c. ?? <br />d. ?? <br /><br />53. reverse splitting of S1 seen in? <br />a. severe MS.<br />b. sever AS,<br />c. sever PS <br /><br />54. uncommon tumor in vagina among the following <br />a. mets from cervix <br />b. mets from endometrium <br />c. mets from choriocarcinoma <br />d. primary vaginal tumor <br /><br />55. A question about ctev?? <br />a. narrow heel??? <br />b. cavus <br />c. increased dorsiflexion <br />d. forefoot adduction and supination.. <br /><br />56. drug seen in severe triglyceridemia <br />a. fibrates <br />b. simvastatin <br />c. niacin <br />d. cholestyramine <br /><br />57. lepidic cells are seen in <br />a. rhabdomyoma of heart <br />b. myxoma of heart <br />c. lepromatous leprosy <br />d. glioblastoma <br /><br />58. Schiller Duval Bodies Seen In <br />a. Endodermal Sinus Tumor <br /><br />59. Which Is Mc Ovarian Tumor Seen In Pregnancy- <br />a. Dermoid tumor,mucinouscystadenoma <br /><br />60. mosaic pattern of lamellar bone is classically seen in <br />a. pagets ds:) <br /><br />61. most common cause of congenital hypothyroidism <br />a. thyroid dysgenesis <br />b. maternal ab's <br />c. inborn errors of thyroid hormone defects <br /><br />62. most common site of ca stomach? <br />a. lesser curvature <br />b. greater curvature <br />c. antrum <br />d. fundus <br /><br />63. gamma knife <br />a. cs 127 <br />b. co 60 <br />c. iridium 92 <br /><br />64. m.c cause of pseudopancreatic cyst? <br />a. pancreatitis <br />b. trauma <br />c. ?? <br />d. ?? <br /><br />65. pt with v.s.d develops pulmonary htn <br />a. cyanosis <br />b. initial resolution of symptoms <br />c. ?? <br />d. ?? <br /><br />66. non motile clostridia <br />a. cl.tetanomorphum <br />b. cl.histolyticum <br />c. cl.septicum <br />d. cl perfringens <br /><br />67. sucralfate has got significant interaction with <br />a. phenoxy methyl penicillin <br />b. ciprofloxacin <br />c. phenytoin <br />d. digoxin <br /><br />68. ivermectin is indicated in all except <br />a. ascaris <br />b. filariasis <br />c. malaria <br />d. oncocerciasis <br /><br />69. dicrotic pulse is seen in <br />a. as with ar <br />b. hocm <br />c. dilated cardiomyopathy <br /><br />70. all of the following are seen in cardiac tamponade except. <br />a. pulsus paradoxus <br />b. warm periphery <br />c. equal lt and rt atrial pressures <br /><br />71. nocturnal angina with diaphoresis <br />a. ac severe mr <br />b. ac severe ar <br />c. ch severe mr <br />d. ch severe ar <br /><br />72. not a glycoprotein <br />a. fsh <br />b. tsh <br />c. adh <br />d. lh <br /><br />73. derivatives of urogenital sinus all except <br />a. bladder <br />b. ejaculatory duct <br />c. prostatic urethra <br />d. membranous urethra <br /><br />74. kerley b lines <br />a. pulmonary edema <br /><br />75. hyaline membrane deposition is seen in <br />a. ards ,<br />b. Pul edema <br /><br />76. Ig a deposition in glomeruli is seen in <br />a. hsp <br />b. alports <br />c. mpgn <br /><br />77. cranial end of wolfian duct <br />a. epoophoron <br />b. paraepoophoron <br />c. gartner cyst <br />d. bartholin cyst <br /><br />78. brucellosis all except <br />a. o.c cephalosporin <br />b. Transmitted by taking milk <br /><br />79. tall t waves seen in <br />a. hyperkalemia <br /><br />80. hypocalcemia causes <br />a. qt prlongation <br /><br />81. scala tympani and vestibuli is drained by <br />a. aqueduct of cochlea <br /><br />82. Gold standard test for pulmonary embolism... <br />a. CT Angiography <br /><br />83. Left Upper Post Part Of Peritoneal Cavity K/A- <br />a. Lesser sac <br />b. Hepato renal pouch <br />c. Upper end of supra colon ? <br />d. Upper end of infr colon? <br /><br />84. What is not true about case fatality rate? <br />a. Its a ratio <br />b. Not use for acute cases<br /><br />85. A Drug Wich Is Alpha Agonist And Orally Used Produg Used For Autonomic Insufficiency And Postural Hypotension- <br />a. Metamphetamine <br />b. Mitodrine <br />c. Phenylephrine <br /><br />86. Verapamil used over nifedipine? <br /><br />87. ac otitis media in chidren <br />a. str pneumoniae <br />b. strep pyogenes <br />c. staph aureus <br /><br />88. l4 l5 disc prolapse <br />a. absent ankle jerk <br /><br />89. cachetin other name <br />a. tumor necrosis factor ,IL_1,IL-12 <br /><br />90. determining factor for preload <br />a. end diastolic volume <br /><br />91. not a branch of post cord of brachial plexus <br />a. long thoracic nerve <br />b. Axillary n ,radial n <br /><br />92. max nahco3 loss occurs in <br />a. acetazolamide <br /><br />93. not seen in thiazide diuretics <br />a. metabolic acidosis <br /><br />94. dyslipedimia not seen with <br />a. amprenavir <br />b. atazanavir <br />c. saquinavir <br />d. nelfinavir <br /><br />95. during vigorous exercise respiration is limited <br />a. inorganic phosphates <br /><br />96. all are seen with cocaine except <br />a. seizures <br />b. mi <br />c. amantidine is the drug of choice <br /><br />97. rheumatic chorea all are seen except <br />a. absent in sleep <br />b. occurs at 3-4th decayed <br />c. lasts for 4 to 10 wks <br />d. resolves spontaneously <br /><br />98. false about hartnup's disease <br />a. defect in neutral aminoacid transport <br />b. mental retardation is the common pesentation <br />c. most children are asymptomatic <br />d. photosenitivity <br /><br />99. photosensitivity is seen in <br />a. SLE,scleroderma <br /><br />100. false regardin bronchiectasis <br />a. pts present with foul smelling and copiuos amt of sputum <br />b. hemoptysis is the indication for surgery <br />c. when ds is b/l surgery is usually indicated <br />d. ??? <br /><br />101. string sign of cantor <br />a. crohn's ds <br /><br />102. Skip lesions are seen in <br />a. crohn's disease <br /><br />103. Which Isotope Use To Asses Myocardial Function- Tc99 Sulphur Colloidal <br /><br />104. Which is largest bacillus? <br />a. Antrax <br />b. magent? <br /><br />105. askin tumor <br />a. pnet in chest <br />b. skin (snip) <br /><br />106. hpv vaccine <br />a. 6,<br />b. 11,<br />c. 16,<br />d. 32 <br /><br />107. oral hairy leukoplakia related to <br />a. EBV <br /><br />108. EBV causes all except <br />a. kaposi sarcoma ,inf mono,burkit lymphoma <br /><br />109. spider leg appearence is seen in <br />a. adult polycystic kidney ds ,cong multicystic kidney ds <br /><br />110. max limit of cardiothoracic ratio in chidren below 2 yrs <br />a. 0.40 <br />b. 0.45 <br />c. 0.50 <br />d. 0.55 <br /><br />111. In which of the tubercular infection steroid used- <br />a. Lymphadenitis <br />b. Osteomylitis <br />c. Endobronchial t. <br />d. ? <br /><br />112. diaphyseal tumor among the following <br />a. chondromyxofibroma <br />b. giant cell tumoe <br />c. chondroblastoma <br /><br />113. bone to bone mets seen in <br />a. osteosarcoma <br /><br />114. changes not seen when during accomodation to near reflex(qn wasnt like this but it was about near accomodation) <br />a. increase in curvature of lens <br />b. contr of ciliary muscle <br />c. convergence of visual axis <br />d. dilation of pupils <br /><br />115. most common malignant intraorbital tumor <br />a. malignant melanoma <br />b. retinoblastoma <br /><br />116. false about pathological myopia <br />a. ass with cataract <br />b. ass with retinal degenaration <br />c. shallow ant chamber <br /><br />117. topical glucocorticoids in eyes causes <br />a. cataract ,glaucoma <br /><br />118. characteristic of diabetic papillopathy <br />a. bulging optic disc with telengiectatic vessels <br />b. multiple hemorrhagic spots <br />c. optic disc pallor <br />d. cupping of optic disc <br /><br />119. vasectomy leads to A/E scrotal hematoma infection decreased libido anti spermin antibody. <br /><br />120. Basophilic Bodies Seen In – <br />a. Adeno Virus ,<br />b. Herpes.Measles <br /><br />121. Which drug doesn’t causes neutropenia- steroid ,ranitine, <br /><br />122. Which cell doesn’t take part in atherogenesis- <br />a. Neutrophil <br />b. Platelet <br />c. Monocyte <br />d. smooth muscle <br /><br />123. Which Type Of Cell Doesn’t Increased By Steroid- <br />a. Rbc <br />b. Platelets <br />c. Monocyte <br />d. Netrophil <br /><br />124. Which Is Not A Risk Factor For Hcc-<br />a. Fnh <br /><br />125. which is killed vaccine-<br />a. hbv vaccine <br /><br />126. thyroid binding proteins is increased by <br />a. androgens <br />b. estrogens <br />c. asparginase <br />d. glucocorticoids <br /><br />127. not true regarding inhaled glucocorticoids and beta 2 agonists <br />a. glucocorticoids are superior to beta 2 agonists for symptomatic relief <br /><br />128. primary ammnorhea not seen in? <br />a. Aasherman snd,kallman synd <br /><br />129. Staphylococal toxic shock syndrome toxin is.. <br />a. Superantigen <br /><br />130. best tt for relievin pain during intrapartum- neuraxial block <br /><br />131. Which is mode of tt releiving without decreasing pain sensation- deep brain stimulation?? <br /><br />132. Anxity is- adaptive?? <br /><br />133. Dyslexia is due to lesion in- <br />a. Frontal lobe <br />b. Non dominant parietal lobe <br />c. Non dominant temporal lobe <br />d. Temporal lobe <br /><br />134. True about delirium- it is behavioral change due to altertion in cerebral metabolism <br /><br />135. In starvation last change seen- depletion of buccal fat <br /><br />136. For the short time of starvation wich organ doesnt use keton bodies- brain <br /><br />137. sample of spinal cord preseved in... <br />a. Strychnine poisoning <br /><br />138. vesthbulo-ocular reflex mediated by- floculonodular lobe <br /><br />139. Gamma efferent motor neuron act via- ant. Corticospinal tract <br /><br />140. not true regarding poems syndrome <br />a. multiple osteolytic lesion are seen <br /><br />141. not seen in hypervitaminosis <br />a. alopecia <br />b. polyurea <br />c. pseudotumor cerebri <br />d. hyperostosis <br /><br />142. wernicke psychosis is due to <br />a. thiamine defeciency <br /><br />143. wernicke hemianopic pupil is seen in lesion of <br />a. optic radiation <br />b. optic tract <br />c. optic chiasma <br />d. afferent tract <br /><br />144. atra is used in the treatment of <br />a. promyelocytic leukaemia <br /><br />145. vitilgo is most commonly ass with <br />a. diabetes mellitus <br />b. addisons ds <br />c. hypothyroidism <br />d. diabetes insipidus <br /><br />146. leukonychia is seen in <br />a. hypoalbuminemia ,Fe def anemia <br /><br />147. puva treatment is not used in <br />a. melasma,psoriasis,cutaneous lymphoma <br /><br />148. all except are features plummer vinson syndrome <br />a. hypertrophy of oral mucosa <br /><br />149. excessive granulation tissue,bleeds easy to touch foul smelling genital ulcer <br />a. chancroid <br />b. herpes <br />c. syphilis <br />d. donovaniosis <br /><br />150. post polio deformity of hip <br />a. abduction,flexion,internal rotation <br /><br />151. most common complication of mumps <br />a. meningoencephalitis <br /><br />152. marker for peroxisomes <br />a. glutamate dhase <br />b. glu 6 phosphatase <br />c. 5' nucleotidase <br />d. uric acid oxidase <br /><br />153. drug used for treatment of hypercricemia in excess producers <br />a. allopurinol <br /><br />154. drug not acting on cell wall <br />a. dactinomycin <br /><br />155. question regarding enzyme specificity?? <br /><br />156. m.c cause of death in 1-4 years of age in developin countries <br />a. malnutrition <br />b. diarrheal ds <br />c. respiratory infection <br /><br />157. pincer grasp is seen at <br />a. 5-6 months <br />b. 7-8 months <br />c. 9-11 months <br />d. >12 months <br /><br />158. cremastric reflex afferent is <br />a. genitofemoral n <br /><br />159. not a content of adductor canal <br />a. femoral v <br />b. femoral a <br />c. saphanous n <br />d. n to vas lateralis <br /><br />160. incisional hernia with least recurrence <br />a. Kelly,intraperitoneal mesh,imtramuscular mesh <br /><br />161. Most common gene abnormal in Follicular ca thyroi. <br />a. H RAS..<br />b. K RAS..<br />c. N RAS..<br />d. NTRK1 <br /><br />162. parkland formula <br />a. %of burn area*body wt*4 <br /><br />163. First sinus to develop in a growing fetus <br />a. answer is maxillary <br /><br />164. which is more common in a paper mill worker <br />a. baggasosis,byssinosis <br /><br />165. for a person to lose1/2 kg weight the calorie intake should be reduced per day? <br />a. 125k,<br />b. 250k,<br />c. 500k <br /><br />166. no of live births/no of females 15-45 in pop denotes <br />a. gfr <br />b. tfr <br /><br />167. Decreased erythropoitin levels are seen in advanced <br />a. renal failure <br /><br />168. Feature of tb otitis media <br />a. mutliple perforations of tm <br /><br />169. regarding treatment of meningioma <br />a. surgery and observation <br />b. preop chemo and surgery <br />c. surgery and postop radio <br />d. removal of dura <br /><br />170. kartagener's syndrome includes all except <br />a. situs inversus <br />b. cong.bronchiectasis <br />c. cong.emphysema <br />d. <br /><br />171. decrease in BP causes <br />a. inhibits vasoconstictor center <br />b. disinhibits vasoconstricot center <br />c. c? <br /><br />172. Involvement Of Posterior Column Causes All Except <br />a. loss of propiaoreception <br />b. absent abreflex <br />c. absent knee jerk <br />d. absent ankle jerk <br /><br />173. Insulin Acts Through All Except <br />a. tyrosine kinase receptor <br />b. membrane na-k atpase <br />c. inducing hexokinase activity <br />d. <br /><br />174. CA Cervix With Inv Of Upper 1/3 Vagina But Not The Parametrium Is <br />a. stage IIA,<br />b. IIIA,<br />c. IIB,<br />d. IIIB<br /> <br />175. bladder injury is most common after <br />a. abhysterectomy <br />b. vag.hysterectomy <br />c. lap.hysterectomy <br /><br />176. acute emphysematous cholecystitis is caused by <br />a. pseudomonas <br />b. clostridium <br />c. <br /><br />177. which is an enzyme inhibiter <br />a. disulfiram <br /><br />178. which occurs in phase 1 reaction <br />a. methylation, hydration,conjugation <br /><br />179. cleft lip is repaired at <br />a. 1-3month,<br />b. 4-5m,<br />c. 1 year <br /><br />180. hypercalcemia is caused by all except <br /><br />181. fasting hyperglycemia is always associated with <br /><br />182. Tractional Retinal Detqchment <br />a. 1-DM, <br /><br />183. level of TRACHEOSTOMY determined by <br />a. Cricoid cart,<br />b. 1st tracheal ring, <br />c. 2nd <br /><br />184. Regarding mifepristone all are true except <br /><br />185. regarding tamoxifen <br /><br />186. bone destruction increased osteolysisis <br />a. Oseoporosis,<br />b. osteopetrosis <br /><br />187. Which Is Not A Complication Specific To Monozygotic Twins <br />a. fetal demis, malpresentation,twin-twin blood transfusion <br /><br />188. acetyl co a carboxylase is stimulated by <br />a. Thymine pyrophosphate <br /><br />189. superior mesentric artery syndrome <br /><br />190. Sudden loss of wt,long messentry,high attached lig. F traitz <br /><br />191. non ketotic diabetic coma <br />a. DM-2, <br /><br />192. not a complication of major blood transfusion <br />a. Hypercalemia,hypothermia <br /><br />193. not a branch of opthalmic artery <br />a. sup orbital,supra trochlear,sup. Temporal <br /><br />194. grey colour teeth yelllow flurosence <br />a. Tetracycline,porphyria <br /><br />195. clue cells are seen in <br />a. Bact vaginosis,candida,trich. <br /><br />196. function of ubiquitin <br />a. Destruction of intracellular protein <br /><br />197. mc site of fracture of mandible <br />a. Neck f mandible, <br /><br />198. m/c cause of acute otitis media in children <br />a. Strept pyogen, strept pneumonia ,staph <br /><br />199. lady with prolactinoma n bitemporal heminopia <br />a. Microadenoma, macroadenoma <br /><br />200. h pylori causes all except <br /><br />201. most common esophageal motility disorder <br />a. Achlasia,DES,inapprapiate esophageal contraction <br /><br />202. testesterone secreted by <br />a. setoli cells <br />b. leyding cells <br /><br />203. 95 percent of vaccine sensitivity <br />a. 95% people taken vaccine r protected <br />b. Vaccine protect only 95% frm virus <br /><br />204. rntcp target level <br />a. 80%detection n 85% cure <br />b. 70%detection 80% cure <br /><br />205. which is done even after control of disease <br />a. surveillance <br />b. health education <br /><br />206. most ideal site for sterilisation <br />a. Isthumus ,ampula <br /><br />207. mc site for fertilisation <br />a. Isthumus ,ampula,uterus <br /><br />208. explicit memory <br />a. (Snip) <br /><br />209. which is not a selective cox2 inhibitor <br />a. Piroxicam <br /><br />210. central retinal artery all are true <br />a. End artery <br /><br />211. regarding typhoid fever true xcept <br />a. Affect 3-4th decayed <br />b. Man is the only reserveoir <br /><br />212. fungal spores resting spores formed by condensation of hyphal elements <br />a. Anthrospore,conidiospore <br /><br />213. rotator cuff injury <br />a. Active abd >than passive <br />b. Passive >active abd <br /><br />214. naloxone can antagonise all except <br /><br />215. bipolar disorder all drugs used except <br />a. LI,carbamazepine,phenitoin <br /><br />216. which of the following is diaphyseal tumor <br />a. GCT,chondroblastomprimitive ectodermal tumor<br /><br />217. which is not an action of disulfuram <br />a. it inhibits phosphodiesterase <br /><br /><br />218. meneiers disease <br />a. low freq snhl <br /><br />219. advanced life support.drugs used except- <br />a. vasopressin <br /><br /><br />220. child with recurrent fracture + wormian bones- <br />a. osteogenesis imperfecta <br /><br />221. general public at risk due to - <br />a. uranium <br /><br />222. all are true about gall stones except <br />a. diverticuloseis <br /><br />223. in s cell anaemia crisisa/e increased spleen size <br /><br />224. bone to bone <br />a. osteosarcoma <br /><br />225. one question regarding partial pressure of oxygen at 760mm of atmospheric pressure-152 <br /><br />226. xeroderm <br />a. nucleotide excision repair <br /><br />227. charcots triad <br />a. pain fever jaundice <br /><br />228. Example of alleleic heterigeneity-beta thalassemia, <br /><br />229. .Auer Rods Are-Lymphocytic Precursors <br /><br />230. one of the following is receptor defect-familial Hypercholesterolemi <br /><br />231. clergymans knee -INFRAPATELLAR BURSITIS <br /><br />232. INFLUENZA cyclic trend antigenic drift <br /><br />233. drug used in alzheimers disease-rivastigmine <br /><br />234. av nodal delay is due to <br />a. Junctional fibres of the AV node are very small in size. <br /><br />235. depolarisation of cochlea <br />a. potassium influx <br /><br /><br />236. ganglion cells act by all except <br /><br />237. methemoglobin pulse oximetry <br />a. red? <br /><br />238. non invasive blood pressure monitoring <br />a. oscillometry <br /><br />239. Not an inherited Thrombophilia- APA Synd <br /><br />240. Pitutary stalk damage a/e prolactin <br />241. surfactants-type 2 pneumocytes <br />242. migratory thrombophelebites-pan CA <br />243. <10kg maintaince iv fluids- 4ml/kr/hr <br />244. not an epithelial tu-Hilus cell tu <br />245. ambylopia and blindness..which poisoning??methanol <br />246. Pseudomyxoma peretoni-Mucinous cystadenoma <br />247. Ques on dopamine..a/e it decreases blood flow in splanchnic circulation <br />248. Ques on lung vol?? <br />249. ques on CEA <br />250. caritid sheath a/e sym trunk <br />251. NO acts by cGMP <br />252. mc tu of appendix- carcinoid? <br />253. ques on human milk?? <br />254. was there a ques on frrusemide..apart from diuretics ques with ans.meta acidosis <br />255. Ulnar Nerve supplies- Adductor Pollicis <br />256. Ochranosis- Alkaptonuria <br />257. Enzyme activity false is- No of units of enzyme per gram of protein( Its actually milli gram) <br />258. lipase deficiency question-milk can be given in pts with steatorrhea??<div class="blogger-post-footer"><img width='1' height='1' src='https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/tracker/2608962106724577004-6896175209864095907?l=hi5times.blogspot.com' alt='' /></div>ckanthnoreply@blogger.com0tag:blogger.com,1999:blog-2608962106724577004.post-87863242750517455932010-02-09T03:29:00.000-08:002010-02-09T03:32:52.951-08:00ANATOMY <br /><br />1. All the following are derivatives of the neural crest, except: <br />a. Melanocyte <br />b. Adrenal medulla <br />c. Sympathetic ganglia <br />d. Cauda euina <br />i) Ans. D <br /><br />2. Which of the following is true regarding gastrulation: <br />a. Establishes all the three germ layers <br />b. Occurs at the caudal end of the embryo prior to its cephalic end <br />c. Involves the hypoblastic cells of inner cell mass <br />d. Usually occurs at 4 weeks <br />i) Ans. A <br /><br />3. All the following features are seen in neurons from dorsal root ganglia, except: <br />a. They have centrally located nuclei <br />b. They are derived from neural crest cells <br />c. They are multipolar <br />d. They contain lipofuscin granules <br />i) Ans. C <br /><br />4. Elastic cartilage is found in: <br />a. Auditory tube <br />b. Nasal septum <br />c. Articular cartilage <br />d. Costal cartilage <br />i) Ans. A <br /><br />5. The weight of the upper limb is transmitted to the axial skeleton by: <br />a. Coracoclavicular ligament <br />b. Coracoacromial ligament <br />c. Costoclavicular ligament <br />d. Coracohumeral ligament <br />i) Ans. A <br /><br />6. The superficial external pudendal artery is a branch of: <br />a. Femoral artery <br />b. External iliac artery <br />c. Internal iliac artery <br />d. Aorta <br />i) Ans. A <br /><br />7. Diaphragmatic hernia can occur through all the following, except: <br />a. Esophageal opening <br />b. Costovertebral triangle <br />c. Costal and sternal attachment of diaphragm <br />d. Inferior vena cava opening <br />i) Ans. D <br /><br />8. Ureteric constriction is seen at all the following positions, except: <br />a. Ureteropelvic junction <br />b. Ureterovesicle junction <br />c. Crossing of iliac artery <br />d. Ischial spine <br />i) Ans. D <br /><br />9. All the following are true regarding blood supply to the kidney , except: <br />a. Stellate veins drain superficial zone <br />b. It is site of portosystemic anastomosis <br />c. The renal artery divides into five segmental arteries before entering the hilum <br />d. Its segmental arteries are end-arteries <br />i) Ans. B <br /><br />10. 1A patient with external hemorrhoids develops pain while passing stools. The nerve mediating this pain is: <br />a. Hypogastric nerve <br />b. Pudendal nerve <br />c. Splachnic visceral nerve <br />d. Sympathetic plexus <br />i) Ans. B <br /><br />11. 1Which of the following muscles is supplied by mandibular nerve: <br />a. Masseter <br />b. Buccinator <br />c. Tensor veli palati <br />d. Posterior belly of digastric <br />i) Ans. C <br /><br />12. 1The sensoy supply of the palate is through all of the following, except: <br />a. Facial nerve <br />b. Hypoglossal nerve <br />c. Glossopharyngeal nerve <br />d. Maxillary division of trigeminal nerve <br />i) Ans. B <br /><br />13. 1All of the following are features of large intestine, except: <br />a. Large intestine secretes acidic mucus which helps in formation of stools <br />b. It is a site of mucocutaneous junction <br />c. Its epithelium contains globlets cells in large numbers <br />d. Absorbs salt and water <br />i) Ans. A <br /><br />14. 1In flexion and abduction of shoulder all of the following structures are compressed except: <br />a. Subacromial bursa <br />b. Long head of biceps <br />c. Suprascapular nerve <br />d. Supraspinatus tendon <br />i) Ans. C <br /><br />PHYSIOLOGY<br /><br />15. SI unit for measuring blood pressure is: <br />a. Torr <br />b. mrnHg <br />c. kPa <br />d. Bar <br />i) Ans. C <br /><br />16. Glucose mediated insulin release is mediated through: <br />a. ATP dependent K+ channels <br />b. cAMP <br />c. Carrier modulators <br />d. Receptor phosphorylation <br />i) Ans. A <br /><br />17. Sudden decrease in serum calcium is associated with: <br />a. Increased thyroxine and PTH secretion <br />b. Increased phosphate <br />c. Increased excitability of muscle and nerve <br />d. Cardiac conduction abnormalities <br />i) Ans. C <br /><br />18. Ablation of the ‘somatosensory area 1’ of the cerebral cortex leads to: <br />a. Total loss of pain sensation <br />b. Total loss of touch sensation <br />c. Loss of tactile localization but not of two point discrimination <br />d. Loss of tactile localization and two point discrimination <br />i) Ans. D <br /><br />19. Non shivering thermogenesis in adults is due to: <br />a. Thyroid hormone <br />b. Brown fat between the shoulders <br />c. Adrenaline from adrenal medulla <br />d. Muscle metabolism <br />i) Ans. C <br /><br />20. In metabolic acidosis, which of the following changes are seen: <br />a. Increased K+excretion <br />b. Decreased K+ excretion <br />c. Increased Na+ excretion <br />d. Increased Na+ reabsorption <br />i) Ans. B <br /><br />21. Tropomyosin: <br />a. Helps in the fusion of actin and myosin <br />b. Covers myosin and prevents attachments of actin and myosin <br />c. Slides over myosin <br />d. Causes Ca2+ release <br />i) Ans. B <br /><br />22. TRH stimulation testing is useful in diagnosis of disorders of following hormones: <br />a. Insulin <br />b. ACTH <br />c. Prolactin <br />d. PTH <br />i) Ans. C <br /><br />23. During muscular exercise all are seen except: <br />a. Increase in blood flow to muscles <br />b. Stroke volume increases <br />c. O2 dissociation curve shifts to left <br />d. O2 consumption increases <br />i) Ans. C <br /><br />BIOCHEMISTRY<br /><br />24. “All enzymes are not proteins.” This statement is justified by: <br />a. All enzymes do not follow the Michaelis Menten hypothesis <br />b. RNAs act as ribozymes <br />c. Antibodies take part in the catalysis of many reactions <br />d. Metals are involved in attachment to enzymes and catalysts <br />i) Ans. B <br /><br />25. Enzymes mediating transfer of one molecule to another are: <br />a. Transferases <br />b. Oxidases <br />c. Lysases <br />d. Peptidases <br />i) Ans. A <br /><br />26. In which of the following reactions is magnesium reuired: <br />a. Na+K+ ATPase <br />b. Dismutase <br />c. Phosphatase <br />d. Aldolase <br />i) Ans. A <br /><br />27. In oxidative phosphorylation, the ATP production and respiratory chain are linked by: <br />a. Chemical methods <br />b. Physical methods <br />c. Chemiosmotic methods <br />d. Conformational changes <br />i) Ans. C <br /><br />28. Thiamine level is best monitored by: <br />a. Transketolase level in RBC <br />b. Thiamine level in blood <br />c. G-6-PD activity <br />d. Reticulocytosis <br />i) Ans. A <br /><br />29. Vitamin B12 and folic acid supplementation in megaloblastic anemia leads to the improvement of anemia due to: <br />a. Increased DNA synthesis in bone marrow <br />b. Increased hemoglobin production <br />c. Erythroid hyperplasia <br />d. Increased iron absorption <br />i) Ans. A <br /><br />30. Nitric oxide synthase: <br />a. Is inhibited by Ca++ <br />b. Catalyses a dioxygenase reaction <br />c. Accepts electrons from NADH <br />d. Reuires NADH, FAD, FMN & heme iron <br />i) Ans. D <br /><br />31. Phenylalanine is the precursor of all the following, except: <br />a. Tyrosine <br />b. Epinephrine <br />c. Thyroxine <br />d. Melatonin <br />i) Ans. D <br /><br />32. In a well fed state, acetyl CoA obtained from diet is least used in the synthesis of: <br />a. Palmity CoA <br />b. Citrate <br />c. Acetoacetate <br />d. Oxalosuccinate <br />i) Ans. C <br /><br />33. Substrate level phosphorylation in citric acid cycle is seen in the conversion of: <br />a. -ketoglutarateaA. Acetoacetate to <br />b. B. Succinyl CoA to succinate <br />c. C. Fumarate to malate <br />d. Succinate to fumarate <br />i) Ans. B <br /><br />34. Apo B48 and apo B100 are expressed as two different apo-proteins because of difference in: <br />a. RNA editing <br />b. RNA splicing <br />c. Chromosomal loci <br />d. Apo-B gene <br />i) Ans. A <br /><br />35. All the following can be used to detect mutation, except: <br />a. Single strand conformational polymorphism <br />b. Ligase chain reaction <br />c. Polymerase chain reaction <br />d. DNA seuencing <br />i) Ans. B <br /><br />36. Which of the following is true regarding hydroxy ethyl starch: <br />a. It is an anesthetic agent <br />b. It is a plasma expander <br />c. It is a crystalloid <br />d. Used as a nutritional agent <br />i) Ans. B <br /><br />37. Elasticity of the corneal layer of SKIN is due to the presence of: <br />a. Histidine <br />b. Keratin <br />c. Lysine <br />d. Cysteine <br />i) Ans. B <br /><br />38. In dividing cells, spindle is formed by: <br />a. Ubiuitin <br />b. Tubulin <br />c. Laminin <br />d. Keratin <br />i) Ans. B <br /><br />39. Entropy in a biological system is constant because: <br />a. It is an open system <br />b. It is a closed system <br />c. It is a governed by vitalism <br />d. Has exothermic-endothermic reactions <br />e. Ans. D <br /><br />40. Which of the following is true regarding a system which favours oscillatory responses: <br />a. Has proportional component <br />b. Has a greater gain <br />c. Has a lesser gain <br />d. Positive FEEDBACK system <br />i) Ans. D <br /><br />41. Highest binding of iron is seen with: <br />a. Transferrin <br />b. Ferritin <br />c. Haemoglobin <br />d. Ceruloplasmin <br />i) Ans. C <br /><br />PATHOLOGY<br /><br />42. The epitheloid cell and multinucleated gaint cells of granulomatous inflammation are derived from: <br />a. Basophils <br />b. Eosinophils <br />c. CD4 T lymphocytes <br />d. Monocytes-macrophages <br />i) Ans. D <br /><br />43. The following host tissue responses can be seen in acute infection, except: <br />a. Exudation <br />b. Vasodilation <br />c. Margination <br />d. Granuloma formation <br />i) Ans. D <br /><br />44. The following feature is common to both cytotoxic T cells and NK cells: <br />a. Synthesize antibody <br />b. Reuire antibodies to be present for action <br />c. Effective against virus infected cells <br />d. Recognize antigen in association with HLA class II markers <br />i) Ans. C <br /><br />45. In the intra-epithelial region of the mucosa of intestine the predominant cell population is that of: <br />a. B cell <br />b. T cells <br />c. Plasma cells <br />d. Basophils <br />i) Ans. B <br /><br />46. In primary tuberculosis, all of the following may be seen except: <br />a. Cavitation <br />b. Caseation <br />c. Calcification <br />d. Langerhan giant cell <br />i) Ans. A <br /><br />47. A mylocardial infarct showing early granulation tissue has most likely occurred: <br />a. Less than 1 hours <br />b. Within 24 hours <br />c. Within 1 week <br />d. Within 1 month <br />i) Ans. D <br /><br />48. A 10 year old boy, died of acute rheumatic fever. All the following can be expected at autopsy except: <br />a. Ashoff nodules <br />b. Rupture of chordae tendinae <br />c. McCallum patch <br />d. Fibrinous pericarditis <br />i) Ans. B <br /><br />49. All of the following are seen in asbestosis except: <br />a. Diffuse alveolar damage <br />b. Calcified pleural plaues <br />c. Diffuse pulmonary interstitial fibrosis <br />d. Mesotheliomas <br />i) Ans. A <br /><br />50. Macrophages containing large uantities of undigested and partial digested bacteria in intestine are seen in: <br />a. Whipple’s disease <br />b. Amyloidosis <br />c. Immunoproliferative small instetinal disease <br />d. Vibrio cholerae infection <br />i) Ans. A <br /><br />51. The histological features of celiac disease include all of the following, except: <br />a. Crypt hyperplasia <br />b. Increase in thickness of the mucosa <br />c. Increase in intraepithelial lymphocytes <br />d. Increase in inflammatory cells in lamina propria <br />i) Ans. B <br /><br />52. In a chronic alcoholic all the following may be seen in the liver except: <br />a. Fatty degeneration <br />b. Chronic hepatitis <br />c. Granuloma formation <br />d. Cholestatic hepatitis <br />i) Ans. C <br /><br />53. Crescent formation is characteristic of the following glomerular disease: <br />a. Minimal change disease <br />b. Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis <br />c. Focal and segmental glomerulosclerosis <br />d. Rapidly non prgressive glomerulonephritis <br />i) Ans. B <br /><br />54. Necrotizing papillitis may be seen in all of the following conditions except: <br />a. Sickle cell disease <br />b. Tuberculous pyelonephritis <br />c. Diabetes mellitus <br />d. Analgesic nephropathy <br />i) Ans. B <br /><br />55. Disease or infarction of neurological tissue causes it to be replaced by: <br />a. Fluid <br />b. Neuroglia <br />c. Proliferation of adjacent nerve cells <br />d. Blood vessel <br />e. Ans. B <br /><br />56. Flat small vegetations in the cusps of both tricuspid and mitral valves are seen in: <br />a. Viral myocarditis <br />b. Libmann Sach’s endocarditis <br />c. Rheumatic carditis <br />d. Infective endocarditis <br />i) Ans. B <br /><br />MICROBIOLOGY<br /><br />57. Bacteria may acuire characteristics by all of the following except: <br />a. Taking up soluble DNA fragments across their cell wall from other species <br />b. Incorporating part of host DNA <br />c. Through bacteriophages <br />d. Through conjugation <br />i) Ans. B <br /><br />58. Neonatal thymectomy leads to: <br />a. Decreased size of germinal center <br />b. Decreased size of paracortical areas <br />c. Increased antibody production by B cells <br />d. mcreased bone marrow production of lymphocytes <br />i) Ans. B <br /><br />59. Staphylococcus aureus differs from Staphylococcus epidermidis by: <br />a. Is coagulase positive <br />b. Forms white colonies <br />c. A common cause of UTI <br />d. Causes endocarditis in drug addicts <br />i) Ans. A <br /><br />60. Positive Shick’s test indicates that person is: <br />a. Immune to diptheria <br />b. Hypersensitive to diptheria <br />c. Susceptible to diptheria <br />d. Carrier of diptheria <br />i) Ans. C <br /><br />61. In a patient with typhoid, diagnosis after 15 days of onset of fever is best done by: <br />a. Blood culture <br />b. Widal <br />c. Stool culture <br />d. Urine culture <br />i) Ans. B <br /><br />62. Which of the following is transmitted by rat urine? <br />a. Leptospira <br />b. Listeria <br />c. Legionella <br />d. Mycoplasma <br />i) Ans. A <br /><br />63. AII the following are true about Listeria except: <br />a. Transmitted by contaminated milk <br />b. Gram negative bacteria <br />c. Causes abortion in pregnancy <br />d. Causes meningitis in neonates <br />i) Ans. B <br /><br />64. Which of the following statement is true about Bacteroides: <br />a. It is gram positive bacilli <br />b. It is strictiy aerobic <br />c. It may cause peritonitis <br />d. Presence in stool culture indicates need for treatment <br />i) Ans. C <br /><br />65. Heat stable enterotoxin causing food poisoning is caused by all the following except: <br />a. Bacillus cereus <br />b. Yersinia enterocolitica <br />c. Staphylococcus <br />d. Clostridium perfringens <br />i) Ans. D <br /><br />66. HIV virus contains: <br />a. Single stranded DNA <br />b. Single stranded RNA <br />c. Double stranded DNA <br />d. Double stranded RNA <br />i) Ans. B <br /><br />67. Regarding HIV which of the following is not true: <br />a. It is a DNA retrovirus <br />b. Contains reverse transcriptase <br />c. May infect host CD4 cells other than T-lymphocytes <br />d. Causes a reduction in host CD4 cells at late stage of disease <br />i) Ans. A <br /><br />68. CMV retinitis in HIV occurs when the CD4 counts fall below: <br />a. 50 <br />b. 100 <br />c. 200 <br />d. 150 <br />i) Ans. A <br /><br />69. Epstein Barr virus causes all the following except: <br />a. Infectious mononucleosis <br />b. Measles <br />c. Nasopharyngeal carcinoma <br />d. Non Hodgkin’s lymphoma <br />i) Ans. B <br /><br />70. In a patient, corneal scraping reveals narrow angled septate hyphae. Which of the following is the likely etiologic agent: <br />a. Mucor <br />b. Aspergillus <br />c. Histoplasma <br />d. Candida <br />i) Ans. B <br /><br />71. Which of the following is true regarding globi in a patient with lepromatous leprosy: <br />a. Consists of lipid laden macrophages. <br />b. Consists of macrophages filled with AFB <br />c. Consists of neutrophils filled with bacteria <br />d. Consists of activated lymphocytes <br />i) Ans. B <br /><br />72. The following diagnostic tests are useful for corresponding purposes except: <br />a. Zeil-Neelson staining – Detection of mycobacteria <br />b. Immunoflorescence – Detection of influenza virus <br />c. Specific IgM antibodies – Immunity against rubella <br />d. Specific IgM antibodies – Detection of acute infection <br />i) Ans. C <br /><br />73. IL-1 produces: <br />a. T lymphocyte activation <br />b. Delayed wound healing <br />c. Increased pain perception <br />d. Decreased PMN release from bone marrow <br />i) Ans. A <br /><br />74. Microfilaria are seen in peripheral blood in which stage of filariasis: <br />a. Tropical eosinophilia <br />b. Early elephantiasis <br />c. Early adenolymphangitis stage <br />d. None of the above <br />i) Ans. C <br /><br />75. Confirmation of diagnosis of rota virus infection is by: <br />a. Antigen detection in stool by ELISA <br />b. Antibody titres in serum <br />c. Antigen detection by immunoflurescence <br />d. Antigen detection in serum by ELISA <br />i) Ans. A <br /><br />PHARMACOLOGY<br /><br />76. Regarding efficacy and potency of a drug, all are true, except: <br />a. In a clinical setup, efficacy is more important than potency <br />b. In the log dose response curve, the height of the curve corresponds with efficacy <br />c. ED50 of the drug corresponds to efficacy <br />d. Drugs that produce a similar pharmacological effect can have different levels of efficacy <br />i) Ans. D <br /><br />77. All the following are selective beta blockers, except: <br />a. Atenolol <br />b. Esmolol <br />c. Bisprolol <br />d. Celiprolol <br />e. Ans. D <br /><br />78. All of the following factors increase the risk of aminoglycoside renal toxicity, except: <br />a. Elderly person <br />b. Dehydration <br />c. Simultaneous use with penicillin <br />d. Aminoglycoside administration in recent past <br />i) Ans. C <br /><br />79. In which of the following disorders is administration of barbiturates contraindicated in: <br />a. Anxiety disorders <br />b. Acute intermittent porphyria <br />c. Kemincterus <br />d. Refractive status epilepticus <br />i) Ans. B <br /><br />80. Mechanism of action tianeptin in the brain is: <br />a. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibition <br />b. Selective norepinephfine reuptake inhibition <br />c. Selective serotonin reuptake enchancer <br />d. Selective dopamine reuptake inhibition <br />i) Ans. C <br /><br />81. Proton pump inhibitors are most effective when they are given: <br />a. After meals <br />b. Shortly before meals <br />c. Along with H2 blockers <br />d. During prolonged fasting periods <br />i) Ans. B <br /><br />82. Which of the following is correctly matched: <br />a. Dimercaprol:Iron <br />b. Calcium di-sodium EDTA:Arsenic <br />c. Penicillamine:Copper <br />d. Desferrioxamine:Lead <br />i) Ans. C <br /><br />83. Digoxin is contraindicated in: <br />a. Supraventricular tachycardia <br />b. Atrial fibrillation <br />c. Congestive heart failure <br />d. Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy <br />i) Ans. D <br /><br />84. All the following drugs cause renal failure except: <br />a. Cephaloridine <br />b. Amphoterecin B <br />c. Cefoperazone <br />d. Gentamicin <br />i) Ans. C <br /><br />85. All of the following statements are true regarding losartan except: <br />a. It is a competitive angiotensin receptor antagonist <br />b. It has a long acting metabolite <br />c. Associated with negligible cough <br />d. Causes hyperuricemia <br />i) Ans. D <br /><br />86. Gemcitabine is effective in: <br />a. Head and neck cancers <br />b. Pancreatic cancer <br />c. Small-cell lung cancer <br />d. Soft tissue sarcoma <br />i) Ans. B <br /><br />87. All of the following drugs can cross placenta except: <br />a. Phenytoin <br />b. Diazepam <br />c. Morphine <br />d. Heparin <br />i) Ans. D <br /><br />88. A highway truck driver has profuse rhinorrhea and sneezing. Which amongst the following durgs would you prescibe him? <br />a. Pheniramine <br />b. Promethazine <br />c. Dimerhydrinate <br />d. Cetrizine <br />i) Ans. D <br /><br />89. The mechanism of action of sodium nitroprusside is: <br />a. Increased cAMP <br />b. Increased guanylate cyclase <br />c. Calcium channel blockage <br />d. K+ channel opener <br />i) Ans. B <br /><br />90. 9All the following belong to the steroid receptor superfamily except: <br />a. Vitamin D3 receptor <br />b. Thyroid receptor <br />c. Retinoid receptor <br />d. Epinephrine receptor <br />e. Ans. D <br /><br />91. All of the following undergo hepatic metabolism before excretion except: <br />a. Phenytoin <br />b. Diazepam <br />c. Penicillin G <br />d. Cimetidine <br />i) Ans. C <br /><br />92. In a patient taking oral contraceptive, the chance of pregnancy increases after taking any of the following drugs except: <br />a. Phenytoin <br />b. Carbamazepine <br />c. Ampicillin <br />d. Cimetidine <br />i) Ans. D <br /><br />93. The primary mechanism of action of fluoride on topical application is: <br />a. Conversion of hydroxyapatite to fluoroapatite by replacing the –OH ions <br />b. Inhibition of plaue bacteria <br />c. Form a reservoir in saliva <br />d. Improvement in tooth morphology <br />i) Ans. A <br /><br />94. A 65 year old man was consuming opium for 20 years. He stops consumption suddenly and comes to casualty after 2 days. Which is likely to occur due to withdrawal: <br />a. Rhinorrhoea <br />b. Hypotension <br />c. Drowsiness <br />d. Miosis <br />i) Ans. A <br /><br />95. Which of the following causes hepatic granuloma? <br />a. Amiodarone <br />b. Alcohol <br />c. Cimetidine <br />d. Metronidazole <br />i) Ans. A <br /><br />96. Coronary steal commonly is seen with: <br />a. Atenolol <br />b. Diltiazem <br />c. Nitroglycerine <br />d. Dipyridamole <br />i) Ans. D <br /><br />97. A patient is taking ketoconazole for fungal infection develops cold for which he is prescribed terfenadine. Possible interaction between terfenadine and ketoconazole is: <br />a. Ketoconazole decreases metabolism of terfenadine <br />b. Terfenadine increases levels of ketoconazole <br />c. Ketoconazole decreases levels of terfenadine <br />d. No interaction <br />i) Ans. A <br /><br />FORENSIC MEDICINE<br /><br />98. What would be the race of individual if skull bone having following feature – rounded nasal opening, horseshoe shaped palate, round orbit & cephalic index above 80: <br />a. Negro <br />b. Mongol <br />c. European <br />d. Aryans <br />i) Ans. B <br /><br />99. A sample to look for uric crystal (gouty tophus) would be submitted to the Pathology laboratory in: <br />a. Formalin <br />b. Distilled water <br />c. Alcohol <br />d. Normal saline <br />i) Ans. C <br /><br />100. Not a feature of brain death: <br />a. Complete apnea <br />b. Absent pupillary reflex <br />c. Absence of deep tendon reflex <br />d. heart rate unresponsive to atropine <br />i) Ans. C <br /><br />101. At autopsy, a body is found to have copious fine leathery froth in mouth & nostrils which increased on pressure over chest. Death was likely due to: <br />a. Epilepsy <br />b. Hanging <br />c. Drowning <br />d. Opium poisoning <br />i) Ans. C <br /><br />102. In fire arm injury, entery-wound blackening is due to: <br />a. Flame <br />b. Hot gases <br />c. Smoke <br />d. Deposition from bullet <br />i) Ans. D <br /><br />103. Tentative cut is a feature of: <br />a. Fall from the height <br />b. Homicidal assault <br />c. Accidental injury <br />d. Suicidal attempt <br />i) Ans. D <br /><br />104. Gastric lavage is indicated in all cases of acute poisoning ideally because of: <br />a. Fear of aspiration <br />b. Danger of cardiac arrest <br />c. Danger of respiratory arrest <br />d. Inadeuat ventilation <br />i) Ans. A <br /><br />105. All of the following method used for detecting heavy metals, except: <br />a. Harrison & Gilroy test <br />b. Paraffin test <br />c. Neutron activation analysis <br />d. Atomic adsorption spectroscopy <br />i) Ans. B <br /><br />106. The sensation of creping, bugs over the body is a feature of poisoning due to: <br />a. Cocaine <br />b. Diazepam <br />c. Barbiturates <br />d. Brown sugar <br />i) Ans. A <br /><br />107. Which type of cattle poisoning occurs due to ingestion of linseed plant: <br />a. Aconite <br />b. Pilocarpine <br />c. Atropine <br />d. Hydro cyanic acid <br />i) Ans. D <br /><br />108. A 10 years old child present in casualty with snake bite since six hours. On examination no systemic signs are found & laboratory investigation are normal except localized swelling over the leg < 5 cm. Next step in management would be: <br />a. Incision & suction of local swelling <br />b. IV antivenom <br />c. Subcutaneous antivenom at local swelling <br />d. Observe the patient for progression of symptoms wait for antivenom therapy <br />i) Ans. D <br /><br />109. ‘Gold chloride’ test is done in poisoning with: <br />a. Heroin <br />b. Barbiturates <br />c. Cocaine <br />d. Heavy metals <br />i) Ans. C <br /><br />REVENTIVE AND SOCIAL MEDICINE<br /><br />110. Iron and folic acid supplementation forms: <br />a. Health promotion <br />b. Specific protection <br />c. Primordial prevention <br />d. Primary prevention <br />i) Ans. B <br /><br />111. The most important function of sentinel surveillance is: <br />a. To find the total amount of disease in a population <br />b. To plan effective control measures <br />c. To determine the trend of disease in a population <br />d. To notify disease <br />i) Ans. A <br /><br />112. Serial interval is: <br />a. Time gap between primary and secondary case <br />b. Time gap between index and primary case <br />c. Time taken for a person from infection to develop maximum infectivity <br />d. The time taken from infection till a person infects another person <br />i) Ans. A <br /><br />113. All the following are advantages of case control studies except: <br />a. Useful in rare disease <br />b. Relative risk can be calculated <br />c. Odds ratio can be calculated <br />d. Cost effective and inexpensive <br />i) Ans. B <br /><br />114. The association between coronary artery disease and smoking was found to be as follows: <br />a. CAD No CAD <br />b. Smokers 30 20 <br />c. Non smokers 20 30 <br /><br />115. The Odds ratio can be estimated as: <br />a. 0.65 <br />b. 0.85 <br />c. 1.35 <br />d. 2.25 <br />i) Ans. D <br /><br />116. In a prospective study comprising 10,000 subjects, 6000 subjects were put on beta carotene and 4000 were not, 3 out of the first 6000 developed lung cancer and 2 out of the second 4000 developed lung cancer. What is the interpretation of the above results? <br />a. Beta carotene is protective in lung cancer <br />b. Beta carotene and lung cancer have no relation to each other <br />c. The study design is not sufficient to draw any meaningful conclusions <br />d. Beta carotene is carcinogenic <br />i) Ans. B <br /><br />117. About direct standardization all are true except: <br />a. Age specific death rates are not needed <br />b. A standard population is needed <br />c. Population should be comparable <br />d. Two propulations are compared <br />i) Ans. A <br /><br />118. Which vaccine is contraindicated in pregnancy? <br />a. Rubella <br />b. Diphtheria <br />c. Tetanus <br />d. Hepatitis B <br />i) Ans. A <br /><br />119. Which of the following statements is true regarding pertussis? <br />a. Neurological complication rate of DPT is 1 in 50000 <br />b. Vaccine efficacy is more than 95% <br />c. Erythromycin is useful for prophylaxis <br />d. The degree of polymorphonuclear leukocytosis correlates with the severity of cough <br />i) Ans. C <br /><br />120. Drugs A & B are both used for treating a particular SKIN infection. After one standard application, drug A eradicates the infection in 95% of both adults and children. drug B eradicates the infection in 47% of adults & 90% of children. There are otherwise no significant pharmacological differences between the two drugs, and there are no significant side effects. However, the cost of drug A is twice that of drug B. Dr. Sunil, a general practitioner, always uses drug B for the first treatment, and resorts to drug A if the infection persists. Dr. Sudhir, another general practitioner, always uses drug A for adults and drug B for children. Ignoring indirect costs, which of the following statement is incorrect: <br />a. Drug A is more effective than B for treating children <br />b. Drug A is more cost-effective than drug B for treating children <br />c. Drug A is more cost-effective than drug B for treating adults <br />d. Dr. Sudhir’s regime achieves a higher level of cost-effectiveness than Dr. Sunil’s <br />i) Ans. B <br /><br />121. The infectivity of chicken pox lasts for: <br />a. Till the last scab falls off <br />b. 6 days after onset of rash <br />c. 3 days after onset of rash <br />d. Till the fever subsides <br />i) Ans. B <br /><br />122. Carriers are important in all the following except: <br />a. Polio <br />b. Typhoid <br />c. Measles <br />d. Diphtheria <br />i) Ans. C <br /><br />123. Acute flaccid paralysis is reported in a child aged: <br />a. 0-3 years <br />b. 0-5 years <br />c. 0-15 years <br />d. 0-25 years <br />i) Ans. C <br /><br />124. A 2-years-old boy, presented with cough, fever & difficulty in breathing. His RR 50/min. There was no chest indrawing. Auscultation of chest reveals bilateral crepitions. The most probable diagnosis is: <br />a. Very severe pneumonia <br />b. Severe pneumonia <br />c. Pneumonia <br />d. No pneumonia <br />i) Ans. C <br /><br />125. Active and passive immunity should be given together in all except: <br />a. Tetanus <br />b. Rabies <br />c. Measles <br />d. Hepatitis B <br />i) Ans. C <br /><br />126. Cereals and proteins are considered complemen- tary because: <br />a. Cereals are deficient in methionine <br />b. Cereals are deficient in methionine and pulse are deficient in lysine <br />c. Cereals are deficient in lysine and pulses are deficient in methionine <br />d. Cereal proteins contain non-essential amino-acids, while pulse proteins contain essential amino acids <br />i) Ans. C <br /><br />127. For a 60 kg Indian male, the minimum daily protein reuirement has been calculated to be 40 g (mean) & standard deviation is 1The recommended daily allowance of protein would be: <br />a. 60 g/day <br />b. 70 g/day <br />c. 40 g/day <br />d. 50 g/day <br />i) Ans. A <br /><br />128. A population study showed a mean glucose of 86 mg/ dL. In a sample of 100 showing normal curve distribution, what percentage of people have glocose above 86%? <br />a. 65 B. 50 <br />b. 75 D. 60 <br />i) Ans. B <br /><br />129. The best method to show the association between height and weight of children in a class is by: <br />a. Bar chart <br />b. Line diagram <br />c. Scatter diagram <br />d. Histogram <br />i) Ans. C <br /><br />130. The correlation between variables A and B in a study was found to be 1.This indicates: <br />a. Very strong correlation <br />b. Moderately strong correlation <br />c. Weak correlation <br />d. Computational mistake in calculating correlation <br />i) Ans. D <br /><br />131. The biological oxygen demand indicates: <br />a. Organic matter <br />b. Bacterial content <br />c. Anaerobic bacteria <br />d. Chemicals <br />i) Ans. A <br /><br />132. In a surveillance centre for hepatitis B, in a low prevalance area, the method for testing for hepatitis B was single ELISA. This policy was changed to double testing in series. This would result in the following 2 parameters of the test being affected: <br />a. Increased specificity and positive predictive value <br />b. Increased sensitivity and positive predictive value <br />c. Increased sensitivity and negative predictive value <br />d. Increased specificity and negative predictive value <br />i) Ans. A <br /><br />133. In a study, variation in cholesterol was seen before and after giving a drug. The test of significance would be: <br />a. Unpaired t test <br />b. Paired t test <br />c. Chi suare test <br />d. Fisher test <br />i) Ans. B <br /><br />134. Ravi and Ashok stay in the same hostel of the same university. Ravi develops infection with group B meningococcus. After a few days Ashok develops infection due to group C meningococcus. All the following are true statements except: <br />a. Educate students about meningococcal trans- mission and take preventive measures <br />b. Chemotheraphylaxis to all against both group B and group C <br />c. Vaccine prophylaxis of contacts of Ravi <br />d. Vaccine prophylaxis of contacts of Ashok <br />i) Ans. C <br /><br />135. All of the following are common cause of post neonatal infant mortality in India, except: <br />a. Tetanus <br />b. Malnutrition <br />c. Diarrhoeal diseases <br />d. Acute respiratory infection <br />i) Ans. A <br /><br />136. True about ‘total fertility rate’ is: <br />a. Sensitive indicator of family planning achievement <br />b. Completed family size <br />c. Number of live births per 1000 married women in reproductive age group <br />d. Average number of girls born to a woman <br />i) Ans. B <br /><br />137. ‘Silent epidemic’ of the century is: <br />a. Coronary artery disease <br />b. Chronic liver disease <br />c. Chronic obstructive lung disease <br />d. Alzheimer’s disease <br />i) Ans. D <br /><br />MEDICINE<br /><br />138. The following condition is not associated with an increased anion-gap type of metabolic acidosis: <br />a. Shock <br />b. Ingestion of ante-freeze <br />c. Diabetic ketoacidosis <br />d. COPD <br />i) Ans. D <br /><br />139. Acute metabolic acidosis: <br />a. Has biphasic effect on K+ excretion <br />b. Does not effect K+ excretion significantly <br />c. Decreases urinary K+ excretion <br />d. Increases urinary K+ excretion <br />i) Ans. C <br /><br />140. Urinary anion gap an indication of excretion of: <br />a. Ketoacids <br />b. Na <br />c. H+ ion <br />d. K+ ion <br />i) Ans. B <br /><br />141. The most common mode of inheritance of congenital heart disease is: <br />a. Autosomal dominant <br />b. Autosomal recessive <br />c. SEX linked dominant <br />d. Multifactorial <br />i) Ans. D <br /><br />142. Which one of the following is an autosomal dominant disorder: <br />a. Cystic fibrosis <br />b. Hereditary spherocytosis <br />c. Sickle cell anemia <br />d. G-6-PD deficiency <br />i) Ans. B <br /><br />143. Which type diabetes is HLA associated: <br />a. Type I diabetes <br />b. Tyep II diabetes <br />c. Malnutrition related type disease <br />d. Pregnancy related type diabetes <br />i) Ans. A <br /><br />144. All of the following are sexually transmitted, except: <br />a. Candida albicans <br />b. Echionococcus <br />c. Molluscum contagiosum <br />d. Group B streptococcus <br />i) Ans. B <br /><br />145. All of the following infections may be transmitted via blood transfusion, except: <br />a. Parvo B19 <br />b. Dengue virus <br />c. Cytomegalovirus <br />d. Hepatitis G virus <br />i) Ans. B <br /><br />146. Hypoglycemia is a recognized feature of all of the following conditions except: <br />a. Uremia <br />b. Acromegaly <br />c. Addison’s disease <br />d. Hepatocellular failure <br />i) Ans. B <br /><br />147. All of the following feature may be seen in thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura, except: <br />a. Fever <br />b. HEMOLYSIS <br />c. Hypertension <br />d. Low platelet count <br />i) Ans. C <br /><br />148. The following laboratory determinants is abnormally prolonged in ITP: <br />a. APTT <br />b. Prothrombin time <br />c. Bleeding time <br />d. Clotting time <br />e. Ans. C <br /><br />149. PNH is associated with all of the following condition except: <br />a. Aplastic anemia <br />b. Increased LAP scores <br />c. Venous thrombosis <br />d. Iron deficiency anemia <br />i) Ans. B <br /><br />150. A 20 years adult presents with severe hypoplastic anemia. What is most effective treatment: <br />a. -interferonaA. <br />b. IL-2 <br />c. ATG therapy <br />d. Bone marrow transplant <br />i) Ans. D <br /><br />151. Which of the following is not commonly seen in polycythemia vera? <br />a. Thrombosis <br />b. Hyperuricemia <br />c. Prone for acute leukemia <br />d. Spontaneous severe infection <br />i) Ans. D <br /><br />152. The following condition is not associated with an anti-phopholipid syndrome: <br />a. Venous thrombosis <br />b. Recurrent foetal loss <br />c. Thrombocytosis <br />d. Neurological manifestations <br />i) Ans. C <br /><br />153. Hypergastrinemia with hypochlorhydria is seen in: <br />a. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome <br />b. VIPoma <br />c. Pernicious anemia <br />d. Glucagonoma <br />i) Ans. C <br /><br />154. All of the following phases of the jugular venous pulse and their causes are correctly matched, except: <br />a. ‘c’wave – onset of atrial systole <br />b. ‘a-x’ descent – atrial relaxation <br />c. ‘v-y’ descent – emptying of blood from right atrium into right ventricle <br />d. ‘y-a’ ascent – filling of the right atrium from the vena cava <br />i) Ans. A <br /><br />155. Which of the following is the correct statement regarding findings in JVP: <br />a. Cannon wave: Complete heart block <br />b. Slow vy descent: Tricuspid regurgitation <br />c. Giant c wave: Tricuspid stenosis <br />d. Increased JVP with prominent pulsations:SVC obstruction <br />i) Ans. A <br /><br />156. While inseting a central venous catheter, a patient develops respiratory distress. The most likely cause is: <br />a. Hemothorax <br />b. Pneumothorax <br />c. Pleural effusion <br />d. Hypovolemia <br />i) Ans. B <br /><br />157. All of the following are clinical features of myxoma, except: <br />a. Fever <br />b. Clubbing <br />c. Hypertension <br />d. Embolic phenomenon <br />i) Ans. C <br /><br />158. Renal vein thrombosis is most commonly associated with: <br />a. Diabetic nephropathy <br />b. Membranous glomerulonephritis <br />c. Minimal change disease <br />d. Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis <br />i) Ans. B <br /><br />159. Characteristic of Henoch-Schonlein purpura is: <br />a. Blood in stool <br />b. Thrombocytopenia <br />c. Intracranial hemorrhage <br />d. Susceptibility to infection <br />i) Ans. A <br /><br />160. Renal osteodystropy differs from nutritional and genetic forms of osesteomalacia in having: <br />a. Hypocalcaemia <br />b. Hypercalcemia <br />c. Hypophostaemia <br />d. Hyerphosphatema <br />i) Ans. D <br /><br />161. Medullary cystic disease of the kidney is best diagnosed by: <br />a. Ultrasound <br />b. Nuclear scan <br />c. Urography <br />d. Biopsy <br />i) Ans. D <br /><br />162. A patient with nephrotic syndrome on long- standing corticosteroid therapy may develop all the following except: <br />a. Hyperglycemia <br />b. Hypertophy of muscle <br />c. Neuropsychiatric symptoms <br />d. Suppression of the pituitary adrenal axis <br />i) Ans. B <br /><br />163. A 40 years old man presented with repeated episodes of bronchospasm and hemoptysis. Chest X-ray revealed perihilar bronchiectasis. The most likely diagnosis is: <br />a. Sarcoidosis <br />b. Idiopathic pulmonary fiborsis <br />c. Extrinsic allergic alveolitis <br />d. Bronchopulmonary aspergillosis <br />i) Ans. D <br /><br />164. Which of the following is characteristically not associated with the development of interstitial lung disease? <br />a. Coal dust <br />b. Sulfur dioxide <br />c. Thermophilic actenomycetes <br />d. Tobacco smoke <br />i) Ans. D <br /><br />165. A 35 years old man was found +ve for HBsAg and HBeAg, accidentally during screening of blood donation. On laboratory examination SGOT and SGPT are normal. What should you do next: <br />a. liver biopsy <br />b. Interferon therapy <br />c. Observation <br />d. HBV-DNA estimation <br />i) Ans. D <br /><br />166. A 25 years women presents with bloody diarrhea and is diagnosed as a case of ulcerative colitis. Which of the following condition is not associated: <br />a. Sclerosing cholengitis <br />b. Iritis <br />c. Ankylosing spondylitis <br />d. Pancreatitis <br />i) Ans. D <br /><br />167. Investigation of choice for invasive amebiasis is: <br />a. Indirect heamagglutination <br />b. ELISA <br />c. Counter immune electrophoresis <br />d. Microscopy <br />i) Ans. B <br /><br />168. A diabetic patient with BLOOD GLUCOSE of 600 mg/dL and Na 122 mE/L was treated with insulin. After giving insulin the BLOOD GLUCOSE decreased to 100 mg/dL.What changes in blood Na level is expected? <br />a. Increase in Na+ level <br />b. Decrease in Na+ level <br />c. No change would be expected <br />d. Na+ would return to previous level spontaneously on correction of BLOOD GLUCOSE : <br />i) Ans. A <br /><br />169. A 20 years young man presents with exertional dyspnoea, headache, and giddiness. On examination, there is hypertension and L VR. X-ray picture shows notching of the anterior ends of the ribs. The most like diagnosis is: <br />a. Pheochromocytoma <br />b. Carcinoid syndrome <br />c. Coarctation of the aorta <br />d. Superior mediastinal syndrome <br />i) Ans. C <br /><br />170. Rheumatoid factor in rheumatoid arthritis is important because: <br />a. RA factor is associated with bad prognosis <br />b. Absent RA factor rules out the diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis <br />c. It is very common in childhood-rheumatoid arthritis <br />d. It correlates with disease activity <br />i) Ans. A <br /><br />171. Conn’s syndrome is associated with all except: <br />a. Hypertension <br />b. Hypernatremia <br />c. Hypokalemia <br />d. Oedema <br />i) Ans. D <br /><br />172. The triad originally described by Zollinger-Ellison syndrome is characterized by: <br />a. Peptic ulceration, gastric hypersecretion, non beta cell tumour <br />b. Peptic ulceration, gastric hypersecretion, beta cell tumour <br />c. Peptic ulceration, achlorhydria, non beta cell tumour <br />d. Peptic ulceration, achlorhydria, beta cell tumour <br />i) Ans. A <br /><br />173. All of the following are features of pheochromocytoma except: <br />a. Hypertensive paraoxysm <br />b. Headache <br />c. Orhtostatic hypotension <br />d. Wheezing <br />i) Ans. D <br /><br />174. The treatment of choice in young patient suffering from aplastic anaemia is: <br />a. Danazol <br />b. G-CSF <br />c. Bone marrow transplantation <br />d. ATG <br />i) Ans. C <br /><br />175. Raised anion gap in blood is not seen in which of the following? <br />a. Renal failure <br />b. Antifreeze ingestion <br />c. Diabetic ketoacidosis <br />d. Chronic respiratory failure <br />i) Ans. D <br /><br /><br />PEDIATRICS<br /><br />176. A Down syndrome girl has 21/21 translocation and her father is carrier of balanced translocation. Risk of Down syndrome in next pregnancy is: <br />a. 100% <br />b. 0% <br />c. 50% <br />d. 25% <br />i) Ans. A <br /><br />177. The following signs would warrant further evaluation of developmental status in a healthy 12 weeks old infant: <br />a. Dose not vocalize <br />b. Dose not babble <br />c. Dose not raise head up to 90° <br />d. Dose not transfer a bright red ring from one hand to the other, even when the ring is directly placed in the hand of child <br />i) Ans. A <br /><br />178. A 2 years child weighing 6.7 kg presents in the casualty with history of vomiting & diarrhoea for last 2 days. On examination SKIN pinch over the anterior abdominal wall go uickly to its original position. Interpretation of SKIN pinch test in this child will be: <br />a. No dehydration <br />b. Some dehydration <br />c. Severe dehydration <br />d. SKIN pinch can not be evaluated in this child <br />i) Ans. D <br /><br />179. An infant presents with history of seizures & SKIN rashes. Investigations show metabolic acidosis and increased blood ketone levels. This child is likely to be suffering from: <br />a. Propionic aciduria <br />b. Urea cycle disorder <br />c. Phenylketonuria <br />d. Multiple carboxylase deficiency <br />i) Ans. D <br /><br />180. With reference to RDS, all of the following statements are true, except: <br />a. Usually occurs in infants born before 34 weeks of gestation <br />b. Is more common in babies born to diabetic mothers <br />c. Leads to cyanosis <br />d. Is treated by administering 100% oxygen <br />i) Ans. D <br /><br />181. Which of the following is not a common manifestation of congenital rubella: <br />a. Deafness <br />b. PDA <br />c. Aortic stenosis <br />d. Mental retardation <br />i) Ans. C <br /><br />182. An 8 years old boy presented with fever and bilateral cervical lymphadenopathy with prior history of sore throat. There was no hepatomegaly. The peripheral blood smear shows > 20% lymphoplasmacytoid cells. The most likely diagnosis is: <br />a. Influenza <br />b. Tuberculosis <br />c. Infectious mononucleosis <br />d. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia <br />i) Ans. C <br /><br />183. The most common genetic cause of liver disease in children is: <br />a. Haemochromatosis <br />b. antitrypsin deficiency1aB. <br />c. Cystic fibrosis <br />d. Glycogen storage disease <br />i) Ans. B <br /><br />184. Which of the following childhood tumors most freuently metastasizes to the bone: <br />a. Neuroblastoma <br />b. Ganglioneuroma <br />c. Wilms’ tumor <br />d. Ewing’s sarcoma <br />i) Ans. A <br /><br />185. A six months old girl is having recurrent UTI. Ultrasound abdomen shows bilateral hydronephrosis. MCU (micturating cystourethrogram) shows bilateral grade IV vesicoureteral reflux. The treatment of choice is: <br />a. Endoscopic injection of polyteflon at the ureteric orifices <br />b. Ureteric reimplantation <br />c. Bilateral ureterostomy <br />d. Prophylactic antibiotics <br />i) Ans. B <br /><br />186. The most common cause of ambiguous genitalia in a newborn is: <br />a. 21 hydroxylase deficiency <br />b. -hydroxylase deficiencybB. 11 <br />c. -hydroxyalse deficiencya17 <br />d. -hydroxysteroid deficiencybD. 3 <br />i) Ans. A <br /><br />DERMATOLOGY<br /><br />187. Multiple erythematous annular lesions with peripheral collarette of scales arranged predominantly over trunk are seen in: <br />a. Pityriasis versicolor <br />b. Pityriasis rubra <br />c. Pityriasis rosea <br />d. Pityriasis lichennoides <br />i) Ans. C <br /><br />188. All of the following are given for the treatment of pityriasis versicolor, except: <br />a. Ketoconazole <br />b. Griesofiilvin <br />c. Clotrimazole <br />d. Selenium sulphide <br />i) Ans. B <br /><br />189. A patient with PSORIASIS was started on systemic steroids. After stopping treatment, the patient developed generalized pustules all over the body. The cause is most likely to be: <br />a. Drug induced reaction <br />b. Pustular PSORIASIS <br />c. Bacterial infections <br />d. Septicemia <br />i) Ans. B <br /><br />190. Wickham’s striae are seen in: <br />a. Lichen niditus <br />b. Lichenoid eruption <br />c. Lichen striates <br />d. Lichen planus <br />i) Ans. D <br /><br />191. Griseofulvin is given for the treatment of fungal infection in finger nail dermatophytosis for: <br />a. 4 weeks <br />b. 6 weeks <br />c. 2 months <br />d. 3 months <br />i) Ans. D <br /><br />192. After 3 days of fever patient developed maculoerythematous rash that lasted for 48 hours. The most likely diagnosis is: <br />a. Fifth disease <br />b. Rubella <br />c. Measles <br />d. Roseola infantum <br />i) Ans. D <br /><br />193. Exfoliative dermatitis can be due to all the following diseases, except: <br />a. Drug hypersensitivity <br />b. Pityriasis rubra <br />c. Pityriasis rosea <br />d. PSORIASIS <br />i) Ans. C <br /><br />194. Genital elephantiasis is caused by: <br />a. Donovanosis <br />b. Congenital syphilis <br />c. Herpes genitalis <br />d. Lymphogranuloma venereum <br />i) Ans. D <br /><br />PSYCHIATRY<br /><br />195. All of the following are features of hallucination, except: <br />a. Depends on will of the observer <br />b. Occurs in inner subjective space <br />c. It is a vivid sensory perception <br />d. It occurs in absence of perceptual stimulus <br />i) Ans. A <br /><br />196. The following is suggestive of an organic cause of the behavioural symptoms: <br />a. Formal thought disorder <br />b. Auditory hallucinations <br />c. Delusion of fruit <br />d. Visual hallucinations <br />i) Ans. D <br /><br />197. Delusion is not present in: <br />a. Delirium <br />b. Mania <br />c. Depresion <br />d. Compulsive disorder <br />i) Ans. D <br /><br />198. An alcoholic is brought to the casualty, 3 days after he uit alcohol, with the complaint of irrelevant talking. On examination, he is found to be disoriented in time, place and person. He also has visual illusions and hallucinations. There is no history of head injury. The most probable diagnosis is: <br />a. Dementia praecox <br />b. Delirium tremens <br />c. Schizophrenia <br />d. Korsakoff psychosis <br />i) Ans. B <br /><br />199. Ram Lal, a 45 years old male came to the psychiatric OPD complaning of continuous, dull, non- progressive headache for the last 8 years. The patient has seen numerous neurologists in the belief that he has a brain tumor even though all his investigations have been normal. The patient insisted that he had a brain tumor and reuested yet another workup. Psychiatric evaluation reveals disease conviction in the background of normal investigations. The most probable diagnosis is: <br />a. Hypochondriasis <br />b. Somatization disorer <br />c. Somatoform pain disorder <br />d. Conversion disorder <br />i) Ans. A <br /><br />200. A patient presented with short lasting episodic behavioural changes which include agitation & dream like state with thrashing movements of his limbs. He does not recall these episodes & has no apparant precipitating factor. The most likely diagnosis is: <br />a. Schizophrenia <br />b. Temporal lobe epilepsy <br />c. Panic episodes <br />d. Dissociative disorder <br />i) Ans. D <br /><br />201. A young lady presented with repeated episodes of overeating followed by purging after use of laxatives. She is probably suffering from: <br />a. Bulimia nervosa <br />b. Schizophrenia <br />c. Aorexia nervosa <br />d. Binge eating disorder <br />i) Ans. A <br /><br />202. An 11 years old boy is all the time so restless that the rest of the class is unable to concentrate. He is hardly ever in his seat and roams around the hall. He has difficulty in playing uietly. The most likely diagnosis is: <br />a. Attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder <br />b. Conduct disorder <br />c. Depressive disorder <br />d. Schizophrenia <br />i) Ans. A <br /><br />SURGERY<br /><br />203. A patient suddenly experienced pain radiating along the medial border of the dorsum of foot. Which of the following nerve is most likely to be accidently ligated: <br />a. Sural nerve <br />b. Saphenous nerve <br />c. Deep peroneal nerve <br />d. Genicular nerve <br />i) Ans. B <br /><br />204. In an adult patient with pleural effusion, the most appropriate site for pleurocentesis done by inserting a needle is in: <br />a. 5th intercostal space in midclavicular line <br />b. 7th intercostal space in midaxillary line <br />c. 2nd intercostal space adjacent to the sternum <br />d. 10th intercostal space adjacent to the vertebral column <br />i) Ans. B <br /><br />205. Measurements of intravascular pressure by a pulmonary artery catheter should be done: <br />a. At end expiration <br />b. At peak of inspiration <br />c. During mid inspiration <br />d. During mid expiration <br />i) Ans. A <br /><br />206. A 24 years old man falls on the ground when he is struck in the right temple by a baseball. While being driven to the hospital, he lapses into coma. He is unresponsive with the dilated right pupil when he reaches the emergency department. The most important step in initial management is: <br />a. Craniotomy <br />b. CT scan of the head <br />c. X-ray of the skull and cervical spine <br />d. Doppler ultrasound examination of the neck <br />i) Ans. A <br /><br />207. Kamla Rani, 75 years old woman, presents after 6 weeks with post myocardial infarction with mild CHF. There was past history of neck Surgery for parathyroid adenoma 5 years ago. EKG shows slow artrial fibrillation. Serum Ca2+ 13.0 mg/L and urinary Ca2+ is 300 g/24 h. On examination these is small mass in the paratracheal position behind the right clavicle. Appropriate management at this time is: <br />a. Repeat neck Surgery <br />b. Treatment with technetium -99 <br />c. Observation and repeat serum Ca2+ in two months <br />d. Ultrasound-guided alcohol injection of the mass <br />i) Ans. D <br /><br />208. Not a feature of de uervain’s disease: <br />a. Autoimmune in etiology <br />b. Raised ESR <br />c. Tends to regress spontaneously <br />d. Painful & associated with enlargement of thyroid <br />i) Ans. A <br /><br />209. A 35 years old woman has had recurrent episodes of headache and sweating. Her mother had renal calculi and died of thyroid cancer. Physical observations revealed a thyroid nodule and ipsilateral enlarged cervical lymph nodes. Before performing thyroid Surgery the woman’s physician should order: <br />a. Thyroid scan <br />b. Estimation of hydroxy indole acetic acid in urine <br />c. Estimation of urinary metanephrines, VMA and catecholamines <br />d. Estimation of TSH, and TRH levels in serum <br />i) Ans. C <br /><br />210. All of the following are associated with thyroid storm, except: <br />a. Surgery for thyroiditis <br />b. Surgery for thyrotoxicosis <br />c. Stressful illness in thyrotoxicosis <br />d. I131 therapy for thyrotoxicosis <br />i) Ans. A <br /><br />211. Needle biopsy of solitary thyroid nodule in a young woman with palpable cervical lymph nodes on the same sides demonstrates amyloid in stroma of lesion. Likely diagnosis is: <br />a. Medullary carcinoma thyroid <br />b. Follicular carcinoma thyroid <br />c. Thyroid adenoma <br />d. Multinodular goitre <br />i) Ans. A <br /><br />212. A 26 years old woman presents with a palpable thyroid nodule, and needle biopsy demonstrates amyloid in the stroma of the lesion. A cervical lymph node is palpable on the same side as the lesion. The preferred treatment should be: <br />a. Removal of the involved node, the isthmus,and the enlarged lymph node <br />b. Removal of the involved lobe, the isthmus, a portion of the opposite lobe, and the enlarged lymph node <br />c. Total thyroidectomy and modified neck dissection on the side of the enlarged lymph node <br />d. Total thyroidectomy and irradiation of the cervical lymph nodes <br />i) Ans. C <br /><br />213. The most common tumor of the salivary gland is: <br />a. Mucoepidermoid tumor <br />b. Warthin’s tumor <br />c. Acinic cell tumor <br />d. Pleomorphic adenoma <br />i) Ans. D <br /><br />214. The premalignant condition with the highest probability of progression to malignancy is: <br />a. Dysplasia <br />b. Hyperplasia <br />c. Leucoplakia <br />d. Erythroplakia <br />i) Ans. D <br /><br />215. An old man who is edentulous developed suamous cell CA in buccal mucosa that has infiltrated to the alveolus. Following is not indicated in treatment: <br />a. Radiotherapy <br />b. Segmental mandibulectomy <br />c. Marginal mandibulectomy involving removal of the outer table only <br />d. Marginal mandibulectomy involving removal of upper half of mandible <br />i) Ans. C <br /><br />216. Corkscrew esophagus is seen in which of the following condition? <br />a. Carcinoma esophagus <br />b. Scleroderma <br />c. Achalasia cardia <br />d. Diffuse esophagus spasm <br />i) Ans. D <br /><br />217. Treatment for achalasia associated with high rate of recurrence: <br />a. Pneumatic dilatation <br />b. Laparoscopic myotomy <br />c. Opefl surgical myotomy <br />d. Botulinum toxin <br />i) Ans. D <br /><br />218. Barrett’s esophagus is: <br />a. Lower esophagus lined by columnar epithelium <br />b. Upper esophagus lined by columnar epithelium <br />c. Lower esophagus lined by ciliated epithelium <br />d. Lower esophagus lined by pseudostratified epithelium <br />i) Ans. A <br /><br />219. The adenocarcinoma of esophagus developes in: <br />a. Barrett’s esophagus <br />b. Long standing achalasia <br />c. Corrosive stricture <br />d. Alcohol abuse <br />i) Ans. A <br /><br />220. The lowest recurrence of peptic ulcer is associated with: <br />a. Gastric resection <br />b. Vagotomy + drainage <br />c. Vagotomy + antrectomy <br />d. Highly selective vagotomy <br />i) Ans. C <br /><br />221. Risk factor for development of gastric CA: <br />a. Blood group O <br />b. Duodenal ulcer <br />c. Intestinal hyperplasia <br />d. Intestinal metaplasia type III <br />i) Ans. D <br /><br />222. In a case of hypertrophic pyloric stenosis, the metabolic disturbance is: <br />a. Respiratory alkalosis <br />b. Metabolic acidosis <br />c. Metabolic alkalosis with paradoxical aciduria <br />d. Metabolic alkalosis with alkaline urine <br />i) Ans. C <br /><br />223. All the following indicates early gastric cancer except: <br />a. Involvement of mucosa <br />b. Involvement of mucosa and submucosa <br />c. Involvement of mucosa, submucosa and muscularis <br />d. Involvement of mucosa, submucosa and adjacent lymph nodes <br />i) Ans. C <br /><br />224. In gastric outlet obstruction in a peptic ulcer patient, the site of obstruction is most likely to be: <br />a. Antrum <br />b. Duodenum <br />c. Pylorus <br />d. Pyloric canal <br />i) Ans. B <br /><br />225. Ramesh met an accident with a car and has been in ‘deep coma’ for the last 15 days. The most suitable route for the administration of protein and calories is by: <br />a. Jejunostomy tube feeding <br />b. Gastrostomy tube feeding <br />c. Nasogastric tube feeding <br />d. Central venous hyperalimentation <br />i) Ans. A <br /><br />226. A 10 months old infant present with acute intestinal obstruction. Contrast enema X-ray shows the intussusception. Likely cause is: <br />a. Peyer’s patch hypertrophy <br />b. Mekel’s diverticulum <br />c. Mucosal polyp <br />d. Duplication cyst <br />i) Ans. A <br /><br />227. After undergoing Surgery , for carcinoma of colon, a 44 year old patient developed single liver metastasis of 2 cm. What do you do next: <br />a. Resection <br />b. Chemo-radiation <br />c. Acetic acid injection <br />d. Radiofreuency ablation <br />i) Ans. A <br /><br />228. Ten days after a splenectomy for blunt abdominal trauma, a 23 years old man complains of upper abdominal and lower chest pain exacerbated by deep breathing. He is anorectic but ambulatory and otherwise making satisfactory progress. On physical examination, his temperature is 38.2°C(108°F) rectally, and he has decreased breath sounds at the left lung base. His abdominal wound appears to be healing well,. bowel sound are active and there are no peritoneal signs. Rectal examination is negative. The WBC count is 12,500 per mm3 with a shift to left. Chest X-ray shows plate like atelectasis of the left lung field. Abdominal X-rays show a nonspecific gas pattern in the bowel and an air-fluid level in the left upper uadrant. Serum amylase is 150 Somogyi units/ dl (normal 60 to 80). The most likely diagnosis is: <br />a. Subphrenic abscess <br />b. Pancreatitis <br />c. Pulmonary embolism <br />d. Subfascial wound infection <br />i) Ans. A <br /><br />229. Sentinel lymph node biopsy is an important part of the management of which of the following conditions? <br />a. Carcinoma prostate <br />b. Carcinoma breast <br />c. Carcinoma lung <br />d. Carcinoma nasopharynx <br />i) Ans. B <br /><br />230. A man who weighs 70 kg (154 pounds) is transfered to a burn center 4 weeks after sustaining a second and third-degree burn injury to 45% of his total body surface area. Prior to accident, the patients weight was 90 kg (198 pounds). The patient has not been given anything by mouth since the injury except for antacids because of previous ulcer history. On physical examination, the patient’s burn wounds are clean, but only minimal healing is evident and thick adherent eschar is present. The patient’s abdomen is soft and nondistended, and active bowel sounds are heard. His stools are trace-positive for blood, and he has a right inguinal hernia, which appears to be easily reducible. He has poor range of motion of all involved joints and has developed early axillary and popliteal fossae flexion contractures. In managing this patient at this stage of his injury, top priority must be given to correcting: <br />a. The presence of blood in stools by the increasing the dose of antacids and H1 receptor blocker <br />b. The open, poorly healing burn wounds treated by surgical excision and grafting <br />c. The inguinal hernia treated by surgical repair using local Anaesthesia <br />d. The nutritional status by oral supplementation or parenteral hyperalimentation <br />i) Ans. D <br /><br />231. A 14 years old girl sustains a steam bum measuring 6 by 7 inches over the ulnar aspect of her right forearm. Blisters develop over the entire area of the bum wound, and by the time the patient is seen 6 hours after the injury, some of the blisters have ruptured spontaneously. In addition to debridement of the necrotic epithelium, all the following therapeutic regiments might be considered appropriate for this patient except: <br />a. Application of silver sulfadiazine and daily washes, but no dressing <br />b. Application of polyvinylpyrrolidone foam, daily washes and a light occlusive dressing changed daily <br />c. Application of mafenide acetate cream, but no daily washes or dressing <br />d. Heterograft application with sutures to secure it in place and daily washes, but no dressing <br />i) Ans. D <br /><br />232. All of the following are the clinical features of thromboangitis obliterans except: <br />a. Raynaud’s phenomenon <br />b. Claudication of extremeties <br />c. Absence of popliteal pulse <br />d. Migratory superficial thrombophlebitis <br />i) Ans. C <br /><br />233. Rani, a 16 years old girl who has non-pitting edema of recent onset affecting her right leg but no other symptoms is referred for evaluation. True statements about this patient include: <br />a. Prophylactic antibiotics are indicated <br />b. A lymphagiongram will show hypoplasia of the lymphatics <br />c. Elastic stocking and diuretics will lead to a normal appearance of the limb <br />d. A variety of operations will ultimately lead to a normal appearance of the limb <br />i) Ans. B <br /><br />234. Kamla, a 59 years old woman, has a left femoral vein thrombosis during a pregnancy 30 year ago. The left greater saphenous vein had been stripped at age 2She now presents with a large non healing ulceration over the medial left calf, which has continuously progressed despite bedrest, elevation, and use of a support stocking. Descending phlebography of the left leg demonstrates a patent deep venous system, with free flow of dye from the groin to foot. The first profunda femoris valve is competent. Appropriate management might include which of the following: <br />a. Division of the superficial femoral vein in the groin and transposition of its distal end onto the profunda femoris vein below the level of the competent profunda valve <br />b. Saphenous venous crossover graft with anastomosis of the end of the right saphenous vein onto the side of competent femoral vein <br />c. Ligated iliofemoral venous thrombectomy with creation of the temporary arteriovenous fistula <br />d. Subfascial ligation of perforating veins in the left calf. <br />i) Ans. A <br /><br />235. On her third day of hospitalization, a 70 years old woman who is being treated with antibiotics for acute cholecystitis develops increased pain and tenderness in the right upper uadrant with a palpable mass. Her temperature rises to 40°C (104°F) her blood pressure falls to 80/60 mmHg. Hematemesis, and melena ensue and petechiae are noted. Laboratory studies reveal thrombocytopenia, prolonged prothrombin time, and a decreased fibrinogen level. The most important step in the correction of this patient’s coagulopathy is: <br />a. Exploratory laparotomy <br />b. Administration of heparin <br />c. -aminocaproic acideC. Administration of <br />d. Administration of fresh frozen plasma <br />i) Ans. A <br /><br />236. A 64 years old previously healthy man is admitted to a hospital because of a closed head injury and ruptured spleen following a road side automobile accident. During the first 4 days of hospitalization, following laparotomy and splenectomy, he receives 5% dextrose, 0.5% normal saline solution at a rate of 125 mL/h. Recorded daily fluid outputs include 450 to 600 mL of nasogastric drainage and 700 to 1000 mL of urine. The patient is somnolent but easily aroused until the morning of the 5th hospital day, when he is noted to be in deep coma. By the afternoon, he begins having seizures. The following laboratory data are obtained. Serum electrolytes (mE/L): Na+ 130; K+ 1.9; CI– 96; HCO3– 1Serum osmolality 260 mOsm/L. Urine electrolytes (mE/L): Na+ 61; K+ 1Which of the following statements about diagnosis or treatment of this patient’s condition is true: <br />a. Emergency carotid arteriogram is to be done <br />b. Secondary to metabolic acidosis there is hypokalemia <br />c. A small antity of hypertonic saline should be given <br />d. IV infusion of 20 ml of 50% MgSO4 is given over a period of 4 hours <br />i) Ans. C <br /><br />237. All of the following statements about acute adrenal insufficiency are true except: <br />a. Hyperglycemia is usually present <br />b. Acute adrenal insufficiency usually is secondary to exogenous glucocorticoid administration <br />c. Acute adrenal insufficiency presents with weakness, vomiting, fever, and hypotension <br />d. Hyponatremia occurs because of impaired renal tubule sodium resorption <br />i) Ans. A <br /><br />238. All of the following are correct statements about radiological evaluation of a pateint with Cushing’s syndrome except: <br />a. MRI of the sella turcica will identify a pituitary cause for Cushing’s syndrome <br />b. Petrosal sinus sampling is the best way to distinguish a pituitary tumor from an ectopic ACTH producing tumor. <br />c. MRI of the adrenals may distinguish adrenal adenoma from carcinoma <br />d. Adrenal CT scan distinguishes adrenal cortical hyperplasia from an adrenal tumor <br />i) Ans. A <br /><br /><br />ORTHOPAEDICS <br /><br />239. Carpel tunnel syndrome is due to compression of: <br />a. Radial nerve <br />b. Ulnar nerve <br />c. Palmar branch of the ulnar nerve <br />d. Median nerve <br />i) Ans. D <br /><br />240. Most common nerve involved in the FRACTURE of surgical neck of humerus is: <br />a. Median <br />b. Radial <br />c. Ulnar <br />d. Axillary <br />i) Ans. D <br /><br />241. All of the following are associated with supracondylar FRACTURE of humerus, except: <br />a. It is uncommon after 15 years of age <br />b. Extension type FRACTURE is more common than the flexion type <br />c. Cubitus varus deformity commonly results following malunion <br />d. Ulnar nerve is most commonly involved <br />i) Ans. D <br /><br />242. A 40 years old man, was admitted with FRACTURE shaft femur following a road traffic accident. On 2nd day he became disoriented. He was found to be tachypnoeic, and had conjunctival petechiae. Most likely diagnosis is: <br />a. Pulmonary embolism <br />b. Sepsis syndrome <br />c. Fat embolism <br />d. Haemothorax <br />i) Ans. C <br /><br />243. Kumar, a 31 years old motorcyclist sustained injury over his right hip joint. X-ray revealed a posterior dislocation of the right hip joint. The clinical attitude of the affected lower limb will be: <br />a. External rotation, extension & abduction <br />b. Internal rotation, flexion & adduction <br />c. Internal rotation, extension & abduction <br />d. External rotation, flexion & abduction <br />i) Ans. B <br /><br />244. Pappu, 7 years old young boy, had FRACTURE of lateral condyle of femur. He developed malunion as the FRACTURE was not reduced anatomically. Malunion will produce: <br />a. Genu valgum <br />b. Genu varum <br />c. Genu recurvatum <br />d. Dislocation of knee <br />i) Ans. A <br /><br />245. Patellar tendon bearing POP cast is indicated in the following FRACTURE : <br />a. Patella <br />b. Tibia <br />c. Medial malleolus <br />d. Femur <br />i) Ans. B <br /><br />246. Inversion injury at the ankle can cause all of the following except: <br />a. FRACTURE tip of lateral melleolus <br />b. FRACTURE base of the 5th metatarsal <br />c. Sprain of extensor digitorum brevis <br />d. FRACTURE of sustentaculam tali <br />i) Ans. C <br /><br />247. A previously healthy 45 years old laborer suddenly develops acute lower back pain with right-leg pain & weakness of dorsiflexion of the right great toe. Which of the following is true: <br />a. Immediate treatment should include analgesics, muscle relaxants & back strengthening exercises <br />b. The appearance of the foot drop indicates early surgical intervention <br />c. If the neurological signs resolve within 2 to 3 weeks but low back pain persists, the proper treatment would include fusion of affected lumbar vertebra <br />d. If the neurological signs fail to resolve within 1 week, lumbar laminectomy and excision of any herniated nucleus pulposus should be done <br />i) Ans. B <br /><br />248. Acute osteomylitis is most commonly caused by: <br />a. Staphylococcus aureus <br />b. Actinomyces bovis <br />c. Nocardia asteroides <br />d. Borrelia vincentii <br />i) Ans. A <br /><br />249. A 45 years male presented with an expansile lesion in the centre of femoral metaphysis. The lesion shows endosteal scalloping & punctuate calcifications. Most likely diagnosis is: <br />a. Osteosarcoma <br />b. Chondrosarcoma <br />c. Simple bone cyst <br />d. Fibrous dysplasia <br />i) Ans. B <br /><br />250. Raju, a 10 years old child, presents with predisposition to fractures, anemia, hepatosplenomegaly and a diffusely increased radiographic density of bones. The most likely diagnosis is: <br />a. Osteogenesis imperfecta <br />b. Pyenodysotosis <br />c. Myelofibrosis <br />d. Osteopetrosis <br />i) Ans. D <br /><br />251. Hari Vardhman, 9 years old child, presents with scoliosis, hairy tuft in the SKIN of back and neurological deficit. Plain X-rays reveal multiple vertebral anomalies & a vertical bony spur overlying lumbar spine on AP view. The most probable diagnosis is: <br />a. Dorsal dermal sinus <br />b. Diastometamyelia <br />c. Tight filum terminale <br />d. Caudal regresion syndrome <br />i) Ans. B <br /><br />252. In a patient with head injury, unexplained hypotension warrants evaluation of: <br />a. Upper cervical spine <br />b. Lower cervical spine <br />c. Thoracic spine <br />d. Lumbar spine <br />i) Ans. C <br /><br />253. Complete transection of the spinal cord at the C1 level produces all of the following effects except: <br />a. Hypotension <br />b. Limited respiratory effort <br />c. Anaesthesia below the level of the lesion <br />d. Areflexia below the level of the lesion <br />i) Ans. B <br /><br /><br />ANAESTHESIA <br /><br />254. The gas which produces systemic toxicity without causing local irritation is: <br />a. Ammonia <br />b. Carbon monoxide <br />c. Hydrocyanic acid <br />d. Sulfur dioxide <br />i) Ans. B <br /><br />255. In a patient with fixed respiratory obstruction helium is used along with oxygen instead of plain oxygen because: <br />a. It increases oxygenation <br />b. It decreases turbulence <br />c. It decreases the dead space <br />d. It provides analgesia <br />i) Ans. B <br /><br />256. Upper respiratory tract infection is a common problem in children. All the following anesthetic complications can occur in children with respiratory infections, except: <br />a. Bacteremia <br />b. Halothane granuloma <br />c. Increased mucosal bleeding <br />d. Laryngospasm <br />i) Ans. B <br /><br />OPHTHALMOLOGY <br /><br />257. In the normal human right eye , the peripheral field of vision is usually least: <br />a. On the left side (nasally) <br />b. In the downward direction <br />c. In the upward direction <br />d. On the right side (temporally) <br />i) Ans. C <br /><br />258. Tonography helps you to determine: <br />a. The rate of formation of aueous <br />b. The facility of outflow of aueous <br />c. The levels of intraocular presure at different times <br />d. The field changes <br />i) Ans. B <br /><br />259. Any spectral colour can be matched by a mixture of three monochromatic lights (red, green, blue) in different proportions. If a person needs more of one of the colour for matching than a normal person, then he has a colour anomaly. More red colour is needed in the case of: <br />a. Deuteranomaly <br />b. Tritanomaly <br />c. Protanomaly <br />d. Tritanomaly <br />i) Ans. C <br /><br />260. The colours best appreciated by the central cones of our foveo-macular area are: <br />a. Red and blue <br />b. Blue and green <br />c. Red and green <br />d. Blue and yellow <br />i) Ans. C <br /><br />261. Epiphora is: <br />a. Cerebrospinal fluid running from the nose after FRACTURE of anterior cranial fossa <br />b. An epiphenomenors of a cerebral tumor <br />c. An abnormal overflow of tears due to obstruction of lacrimal duct <br />d. Eversion of lower eyelid following injury <br />i) Ans. C <br /><br />262. A 35 years old hypermetrope is using 1.50 D sphere both eyes. Whenever his glasses slip downward on his nose he will feel that his near vision: <br />a. Becomes enlarged <br />b. Becomes distorted <br />c. Becomes decreased <br />d. Remains the same <br />i) Ans. A <br /><br />263. Occulomoter nerve palsy affects all of the following muscles, except: <br />a. Medial rectus <br />b. Inferior obliue <br />c. Lateral rectus <br />d. Levetor palpabrae superioris <br />i) Ans. C <br /><br />264. Kusum Lata presents with acute painful red eye and mildly dilated vertically oval pupil. Most likely diagnosis is: <br />a. Acute retrobulbar neuritis <br />b. Acute angle closure glaucoma <br />c. Acute anterior uveitis <br />d. Severe keratoconjunctivitis <br />i) Ans. B <br /><br />265. You have been referred a midle-aged patient to rule out open angle glaucoma. Which of the following findings will help in the diagnosis: <br />a. Cupping of the disc <br />b. Depth of anterior chamber <br />c. Visual acuity and refractive error <br />d. Angle of the anterior chamber <br />i) Ans. A <br /><br />266. In a case of hypertensive uveitis, most useful drug to reduce intraocular pressure is: <br />a. Pilocarpine <br />b. Latanoprost <br />c. Physostigmine <br />d. Dipivefrine <br />i) Ans. B <br /><br />267. A patient having glaucoma develops blepharoconjunctivitis after instilling some anti- glaucoma drug. Which of the following drug can be responsible for it: <br />a. Timolol <br />b. Latanoprost <br />c. Dipivefrine <br />d. Pilocarpine <br />i) Ans. C <br /><br />268. A 12 years old child complains of headache and decreased vision. On examination he has a visual acuity of 6/36 in the right eye and 6/6 in the left eye . On retinoscopy at 66 cm, the left eye showed correction of 1.5 D and the right eye of 5 D. The anterior chamber and fundus of<div class="blogger-post-footer"><img width='1' height='1' src='https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/tracker/2608962106724577004-8786324275051745593?l=hi5times.blogspot.com' alt='' /></div>ckanthnoreply@blogger.com0tag:blogger.com,1999:blog-2608962106724577004.post-53222352395813010212010-02-08T21:29:00.001-08:002010-02-09T03:33:30.633-08:00ANATOMY <br />1. The commonest variation in the arteries arising from the arch of aorta is: <br />a. Absence of brachiocephalic trunk. <br />b. Left vertebral artery arising from the arch. <br />c. Left common carotid artery arising from brachiocephalic trunk. <br />d. Presence of retroesophageal subclavian artery. <br />i) Ans. C <br /><br />2. The blood vessel related to the paraduodenal fossa is: <br />a. Gonadal vein <br />b. Superior mesenteric artery <br />c. Portal vein <br />d. Inferior mesenteric vein <br />i) Ans. D <br /><br />3. The nerve commonly damaged during McBurney’s incision is: <br />a. Subcostal <br />b. Iliohypogastric <br />c. 11th thoracic <br />d. 10th thoracic <br />i) Ans. B <br /><br />4. The lumbar region of the vertebral column permits all the following movements, except: <br />a. Flexion <br />b. Extension <br />c. Lateral flexion <br />d. Rotation <br />i) Ans. D<br /><br />5. All of the following are examples of traction epiphysis, except: <br />a. Mastoid process <br />b. Tubercles of humerus <br />c. Trochanter of femur <br />d. Condyles of tibia <br />i) Ans. D <br /><br />6. All of the following statements are true for metaphysis of bone, except: <br />a. It is the strongest part of the bone. <br />b. It is the most vascular part of bone. <br />c. Growth activity is maximized here. <br />d. It is the region favouring hematogenous spread of infection. <br />i) Ans. A <br /><br />7. All of the following features can be observed after the injury to axillary nerve, except: <br />a. Loss of rounded contour of shoulder. <br />b. Loss of sensation along lateral side of upper arm. <br />c. Loss of overhead abduction. <br />d. Atrophy of deltoid muscle. <br />i) Ans. C <br /><br />8. All of the following muscles are grouped together as ‘muscles of mastication’, except: <br />a. Buccinator <br />b. Masseter <br />c. Temporalis <br />d. Pterygoids <br />i) Ans. A<br /><br />9. Referred pain from ureteric colic is felt in the groin due to involvement of the following nerve: <br />a. Subcostal <br />b. Iliohypogastric <br />c. Ilioinguinal <br />d. Genitofemoral <br />i) Ans. D<br /><br />10. The right coronary artery supplies all of the following parts of the conducting system in the heart, except: <br />a. SA Node <br />b. AV Node <br />c. AV Bundle <br />d. Right bundle branch <br />i) Ans. D <br /><br />11. The cells belonging to the following type of epithelium are provided with extra reserve of cell membrane: <br />a. Transitional <br />b. Stratified suamous <br />c. Stratified cuboidal <br />d. Stratified columnar <br />i) Ans. A<br /><br />12. Injury to radial nerve in lower part of spiral groove: <br />a. Spares nerve supply to extensor carpi radialis longus <br />b. Results in paralysis of anconeus muscle <br />c. Leaves extension at elbow joint intact <br />d. Weakens pronation movement <br />i) Ans. C <br />13. A 30 year old man came to the outpatient department because he had suddenly developed double vision. On examination it was found that his right eye, when at rest, was turned medially. The most likely anatomical structures involved are: <br />a. Medial rectus and superior division of oculomotor nerve <br />b. Inferior obliue and inferior division of oculomotor nerve <br />c. Lateral rectus and abducent nerve <br />d. Superior rectus and trochlear nerve <br />i) Ans. C <br /><br />14. In a patient with a tumour in superior mediastinum compressing the superior vena cava, all the following veins would serve as alternate pathways for the blood to return to the right atrium, except: <br />a. Lateral thoracic vein <br />b. Internal thoracic vein <br />c. Hemiazygos vein <br />d. Vertebral venous plexus <br />i) Ans. B <br />15. The middle cardiac vein is located at the: <br />a. Anterior interventricular sulcus. <br />b. Posterior interventricular sulcus. <br />c. Posterior AV groove. <br />d. Anterior AV groove. <br />i) Ans. B<br /><br />16. Which of the following statements is true about the autonomic nervous system? <br />a. The sympathetic outflow from the CNS is through both the cranial nerves and the sympathetic chain. <br />b. The parasympathetic outflow from the CNS is through cranial nerves only. <br />c. The superior hypogastric plexus is located at the anterior aspect of the aortic bifurcation and fifth lumbar vertebra. <br />d. The superior hypogastric plexus contains sympathetic fibers only. <br />i) Ans. C <br /><br />PHYSIOLOGY <br /><br />17. An increase in which of the following parameters will shift the O2 dissociation curve to the left: <br />a. Temperature <br />b. Partial pressure of CO2 <br />c. 2,3 DPG concentration <br />d. Oxygen affinity of haemoglobin <br />i) Ans. D<br /><br />18. A lesion of ventrolateral part of spinal cord will lead to loss (below the level of lesion) of: <br />a. Pain sensation on the ipsilateral side <br />b. Proprioception on the contralateral side <br />c. Pain sensation on the contralateral side <br />d. Proprioception on the ipsilateral side <br />i) Ans. C <br /><br />19. Two students, Vineet and Kamlesh were asked to demonstrate in dogs the role of sinus nerve in hypovolemic shock.Vineet severed the sinus nerve when the mean blood pressure (MBP) was 85 mm Hg and Kamlesh cut the sinus nerve when the mean blood pressure was 60 mm Hg. On cutting the sinus nerve: <br />a. Vineet recorded an increase in MBP but Kamlesh recorded a decrease in MBP. <br />b. Vineet recorded a decrease in MBP but Kamlesh recorded an increase in MBP. <br />c. Both recorded an increase in MBP. <br />d. Both recorded a decrease in MBP. <br />i) Ans. A <br /><br />20. As a part of space-research program, a physiologist was asked to investigate the effect of flight-induced stress on blood pressure. Accordingly the blood pressure of the cosmonauts were to be measured twice: once before the take-off, and once after the spacecraft entered the designated orbit around the earth. For a proper comparison, the preflight blood pressure should be recorded in: <br />a. The lying down position. <br />b. The sitting position. <br />c. The standing position <br />d. Any position, as long as the post-flight recording is made in the same position. <br />i) Ans. A <br /><br />21. The renal plasma flow (RPF) of a patient was to be estimated through the measurement of Para Amino Hippuric acid (PAH) clearance. The technician observed the procedure correctly but due to an error in the weighing inadvertently used thrice the recommended dose of PAH. The RPF estimated is likely to be: <br />a. False-high <br />b. False-low <br />c. False-high or false-low depending on the GFR. <br />d. Correct and is unaffected by the PAG overdose. <br />i) Ans. B <br /><br />22. The EEG record shown below is normally recordable during which stage of sleep ? <br />a. Stage I. <br />b. Stage II. <br />c. Stage III. <br />d. Stage IV. <br />i) Ans. B <br /><br />23. Figure below represents the pH of the digestive juice aspirated from the alimentary tract as a function of position along the alimentary tract during digestion of a meal: <br /><br />a. A typical value for Y2 is 9.0. <br />b. A typical value for Y3 is 10.0. <br />c. The segment C represents the pylorus. <br />d. The digestive enzymes active in segment A are inactivated in segment B. <br />i) Ans. D <br /><br />24. Which of the following statements is true for excitatory postsynaptic potentials (EPSP): <br />a. Are self propagating. <br />b. Show all or none response. <br />c. Are proportional to the amount of transmitter released by the presynaptic neuron. <br />d. Are inhibitory at presynaptic terminal. <br />i) Ans. C <br /><br />25. Synaptic conduction is mostly orthodromic because: <br />a. Dendrites cannot be depolarized. <br />b. Once repolarized, an area cannot be depolarized. <br />c. The strength of antidromic impulse is less. <br />d. Chemical mediator is located only in the presynaptic terminal. <br />i) Ans. D <br /><br />26. The cell junctions allowing exchange of cytoplasmic molecules between the two cells are called: <br />a. Gap junctions. <br />b. Tight junctions. <br />c. Anchoring junctions <br />d. Focal junctions. <br />i) Ans. A <br /><br />BIOCHEMISTRY <br /><br />27. The main enzyme responsible for activation of xenobiotics is: <br />a. Cytochrome P-450 <br />b. Glutathione S-transferase <br />c. NADPH cytochrome P-450-reductase <br />d. Glucoronyl transferase <br />i) Ans. A <br /><br />28. The primary defect which leads to sickle cell anemia is: <br />a. An abnormality in prophyrin part of hemo-globin. <br />b. -chain ofB. Replacement of glutamate by valine in HbA. <br />c. -chain of HbA.C. A nonsense mutation in the <br />d. Substitution of -chain of HbA.valine by glutanmate in the <br />i) Ans. B <br /><br />29. Decreased glycolytic activity impairs oxygen transport by hemoglobin due to: <br />a. Reduced energy production <br />b. Decreased production of 2,3-biphospho-glycerate <br />c. Reduced synthesis of hemoglobin <br />d. Low level of oxygen <br />i) Ans. B <br /><br />30. The primary role of chaperones is to help in: <br />a. Protein synthesis <br />b. Protein degradation <br />c. Protein denaturation <br />d. Protein folding <br />i) Ans. D <br /><br />31. The conversion of an optically pure isomer (enantiomer) into a mixture of eual amounts of both dextro and levo form is called as: <br />a. Polymerization <br />b. Stereoisomerization <br />c. Racemization <br />d. Fractionation <br />i) Ans. C <br /><br />32. The protein rich in basic amino acids, which functions in the packaging of DNA in chromosomes, is: <br />a. Histone <br />b. Collagen <br />c. Hyaluronic acid binding protein <br />d. Fibrinogen <br />i) Ans. A <br /><br />33. An enzyme involved in the catabolism of fructose to pyruvate in the liver is: <br />a. Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate dehydrogenase <br />b. Phosphoglucomutase <br />c. Lactate dehydrogenase <br />d. Glucokinase <br />i) Ans. A <br /><br />34. -oxidation of odd-chain fatty acids produces:<br />a. Succinyl CoA <br />b. Propionyl CoA <br />c. Acetyl CoA <br />d. Malonyl CoA <br />i) Ans. B <br /><br />35. The buffering capacity of a buffer is maximum at pH eual to: <br />a. 0.5 pKa <br />b. pKa <br />c. pKa+1 <br />d. 2pKa <br />i) Ans. B <br /><br />36. Which of the following is present intracellulary in muscle cells: <br />a. Insulin <br />b. Corticosteroid <br />c. Epinephrine <br />d. Glucagon <br />i) Ans. B <br /><br />37. 37. Which of the following is not a post transcriptional modification of RNA? <br />a. Splicing <br />b. 5 capping <br />c. polyadenylationC. 3 <br />d. Glycosylation <br />i) Ans. D <br /><br />38. Serum total lactate dehydrogenase level will NOT be raised in: <br />a. Muscle crush injury <br />b. Stroke <br />c. Myocardial infarction <br />d. Hemolysis <br />i) Ans. B <br /><br />39. Porphobilinogen in urine produces pink colour with: <br />a. Fouchet’s reagent. <br />b. Benedict’s reagent. <br />c. Sodium nitropruside. <br />d. Ehrlich’s aldehyde reagent. <br />i) Ans. D <br /><br />40. The collagen triple helix structure is not found in: <br />a. Cytoplasm. <br />b. Golgi apparatus. <br />c. Lumen of endoplasmic reticulum. <br />d. Intracellular vesicles. <br />i) Ans. A <br /><br />MICROBIOLOGY AND PARASITALOGY <br />41. An anxious mother brought her 4 year old daughter to the pediatrician. The girl was passing loose bulky stools for the past 20 days. This was often associated with pain in abdomen. The pediatrician ordered the stool examination which showed the following organisms. Identify the organism: <br />a. Entamoeba histolytica <br />b. Giardia lamblia <br />c. Cryptosporidium <br />d. E. coli <br />i) Ans. B <br /><br />42. Heat labile instruments for use in surgical procedures can be best sterilized by: <br />a. Absolute alcohol <br />b. Ultra violet rays <br />c. Chlorine releasing compounds <br />d. Ethylene oxide gas <br />i) Ans. D <br /><br />43. Thirty-eight children consumed eatables procured from a picnic party. Twenty children developed abdominal cramps followed by vomiting and watery diarrhoea 6-10 hours after the party. The most likely etiology for the outbreak is: <br />a. Rotavirus infection <br />b. Entero-toxigenic E. coli infection <br />c. Staphylococcol toxin <br />d. Clostridium perfringens infection <br />i) Ans. C <br /><br />44. The following are true for Bordetella pertussis except: <br />a. It is a strict human pathogen. <br />b. It can be cultured from the patient during catarrhal stage. <br />c. It leads to invasion of the respiratory mucosa. <br />d. Infection can be prevented by a acellular vaccine. <br />i) Ans. C<br /><br />45. A chest physician performs bronchoscopy in the procedure room of the out patient department. To make the instrument safe for use in the next patient waiting outside, the most appropriate method to disinfect the endoscope is by: <br />a. 70% alcohol for 5 min. <br />b. 2% gluteraldelyde for 20 min. <br />c. 2% formaldehyde for 10 min. <br />d. 1% sodium hypochlorite for 15 min. <br />i) Ans. B <br /><br />46. Which of the following statements is true about rabies virus: <br />a. It is a double stranded RNA virus. <br />b. Contains a DNA-dependent RNA polymerase. <br />c. RNA has a negative polarity <br />d. Affects motor neurons. <br />i) Ans. C<br /><br />47. Which of the following statements is true about endemic typhus: <br />a. Is caused by R. rickettsii. <br />b. Is transmitted by the bite of fleas. <br />c. Has no mammalian reservoir. <br />d. Can be cultured in chemical defined culture medium. <br />i) Ans. B <br /><br />48. The organism most commonly causing genital filariasis in most parts of Bihar and eastern UP is: <br />a. Wuchereria bancrofti. <br />b. Brugia malayi. <br />c. Onchocerca volvulus. <br />d. Dirofilaria. <br />i) Ans. A<br /><br />PATHOLOGY <br />49. A married middle aged female gives history of repeated abortions for the past 5 years. The given below is conceptions prenatal karyogram. This karyogram suggests the following: <br />a. Klinfelter’s syndrome <br />b. Turner’s syndrome <br />c. Down’s syndrome <br />d. Patau’s syndrome <br />i) Ans. C <br /><br />50. An increased incidence of cholangiocarcinoma is seen in all of the following, except: <br />a. Hydatid cyst of liver <br />b. Polycystic disease of liver <br />c. Sclerosing cholangitis <br />d. Liver flukes <br />i) Ans. A <br /><br />51. Strong correlation with colorectal cancer is seen in: <br />a. Peutz-Jeghers polyp <br />b. Familial polyposis coli <br />c. Juvenile polyposis <br />d. Hyperplastic polyp <br />i) Ans. B <br /><br />52. Which of the following is the most common location of hypertensive hemorrhage? <br />a. Pons. <br />b. Thalamus. <br />c. Putamen/external capsule. <br />d. Subcortical white matter. <br />i) Ans. C <br /><br />53. A 63-year old man presented with massive splenomegaly, lymphadenopathy and a total leucocyte count of 17000 per mm3. The flowcytometry showed CD19 positive, CD5 positive, CD23 negative, monoclonal B-cells with bright kappa positivity comprising 80% of the peripheral blood lymphoid cells. The most likely diagnosis is: <br />a. Mantle cell lymphoma. <br />b. Splenic lymphoma with villous lymphocytes. <br />c. Follicular lymphoma. <br />d. Hairy cell leukemia. <br />i) Ans. A <br /><br />54. The HLA class III region genes are important elements in: <br />a. Transplant rejection phenomenon. <br />b. Governing susceptibility to autoimmune diseases. <br />c. Immune surveillance. <br />d. Antigen presentation and elimination. <br />i) Ans. C<br /><br />55. All the statements about lactoferrin are true, except: <br />a. It is present in secondary granules of neutrophil. <br />b. It is present in exocrine secretions of body. <br />c. It has great affinity for iron. <br />d. It transports iron for erythropoiesis. <br />i) Ans. D <br /><br />56. Which of the following procedures are used as routine techniue for karyotyping using light microscopy? <br />a. C-banding <br />b. G- banding <br />c. -banding <br />d. Brd V-banding <br />i) Ans. B <br /><br />57. Restriction fragment length polymorphism is used for: <br />a. Analysis of chromosome structure. <br />b. DNA estimation. <br />c. Synthesis of nucleic acid. <br />d. Detecting proteins in a cell. <br />i) Ans. A <br /><br />PHARMACOLOGY <br />58. Granulocytopenia, gingival hyperplasia and facial hirsutism are all possible side effects of one of the following anticonvulsant drugs: <br />a. Phenytoin <br />b. Valproate <br />c. Carbamazepine <br />d. Phenobarbitone <br />i) Ans. A <br /><br />59. Bacitracin acts on: <br />a. Cell wall <br />b. Cell membrane <br />c. Nucleic acid <br />d. Ribosomes <br />i) Ans. A <br /><br />60. All of the following drugs act on cell membrane, except: <br />a. Nystatin <br />b. Griseofulvin <br />c. Amphotericin B <br />d. Polymixin B <br />i) Ans. B<br /><br />61. All of the following statements regarding bioavailability of a drug are true except: <br />a. It is the proportion (fraction) of unchanged drug that reaches the systemic circulation. <br />b. Bioavailability of an orally administered drug can be calculated by comparing ) after oral and intravenous (IV) administration. the area under curve (O- <br />c. Low oral bioavailability always and necessarily mean poor absorption. <br />d. Bioavailability can be determined from plasma concentration or urinary excretion data. <br />i) Ans. C<br /><br />62. The extent to which ionization of a drug takes place is dependent upon pKa of the drug and the pH of the solution in which the drug is dissolved. Which of the following statements is not correct: <br />a. pKa of a drug is the pH at which the drug is 50% ionized. <br />b. Small changes of pH near the pKa of a weak acidic drug will not affect its degree of ionization. <br />c. Knowledge of pKa of a drug is useful in predicting its behaviour in various body fluids. <br />d. Phenobarbitone with a pKa of 7.2 is largely ionized at acid pH and will be about 40% non-ionised in plasma. <br />i) Ans. B <br /><br />63. Presence of food might be expected to interfere with drug absorption by slowing gastric emptying, or by altering the degree of ionisation of the drug in the stomach. Which of the following statement is not correct example: <br />a. Absorption of digoxin is delayed by the presence of food. <br />b. Concurrent food intake may severely reduce the rate of absorption of phenytoin. <br />c. Presence of food enhances the absorption of hydrochlorothiazide. <br />d. Antimalarial drug halofantrine is more extensively absorbed if taken with food. <br />i) Ans. B <br /><br />64. Bosentan is a: <br />a. Serotonin uptake inhibitor. <br />b. Endothelin receptor antagonist. <br />c. Leukotriene modifier. <br />d. Calcium sensitizer. <br />i) Ans. B <br /><br />FORENSIC MEDICINE <br />65. Mummification refers to: <br />a. Hardening of muscles after death <br />b. Colliuative putrification <br />c. Saponification of subcutaneous fat <br />d. Dessication of a dead body <br />i) Ans. D <br /><br />66. A patient has been allegedly bitten by cobra snake. The venom in such a bite would be: <br />a. Musculotoxic <br />b. Vasculotoxic <br />c. Cardiotoxic <br />d. Neurotoxic <br />i) Ans. D<br /><br />67. All the following are related to legal responsibility of an insane person except: <br />a. Mc Naughten’s rule <br />b. Durham’s rule <br />c. Curren’s rule <br />d. Rule of nine <br />i) Ans. D <br /><br />68. In a suspected case of death due to poisoning where cadaveric rigidity is lasting longer than usual, it may be a case of poisoning due to: <br />a. Lead <br />b. Arsenic <br />c. Mercury <br />d. Copper <br />i) Ans. B <br /><br />69. Blackening and tattooing of skin and clothing can be best demonstrated by: <br />a. Luminol spray. <br />b. Infrared photography. <br />c. Ultraviolet light. <br />d. Magnifying lens. <br />i) Ans. B<br /><br />70. Postmortem lividity is unlikely to develop in a case of: <br />a. Drowning in well. <br />b. Drowning in a fast flowing river. <br />c. Postmortem submersion. <br />d. Drowning in chlorinated swimming pool. <br />i) Ans. B<br /><br />71. The following situations are associated with rise of temperature after death except : <br />a. Burns. <br />b. Heat stroke. <br />c. Pontine hemorrhage. <br />d. Septicemia. <br />i) Ans. A<br /><br />72. In prenatal diagnostic techniue Act 1994 which one of the following is not a ground for carrying out prenatal test ? <br />a. Pregnant women above 35 years of age. <br />b. History of two or more spontaneous abortion or fetal loss. <br />c. When fetal heart rate is 160 per min at fifth and 120 per min at ninth month. <br />d. History of exposure to potentially teratogenic drugs. <br />i) Ans. C <br /><br />73. Perjury means giving willful false evidence by a witness while under oath, the witness is liable to be prosecuted for perjury and the imprisonment may extend to seven years. This falls under which section of IPC? <br />a. 190 of Indian Penal Code. <br />b. 191 of Indian Penal Code. <br />c. 192 of Indian Penal Code <br />d. 193 of Indian Penal code. <br />i) Ans. D <br /><br />74. The most reliable criteria in Gustafson’s method of identification is: <br />a. Cementum apposition. <br />b. Transparency of root. <br />c. Attrition. <br />d. Root resorption. <br />i) Ans. B <br /><br />PREVENTIVE AND SOCIAL MEDICINE <br />75. The parameters of sensitivity and specificity are used for assessing: <br />a. Criterion validity <br />b. Construct validity <br />c. Discriminant validity <br />d. Content validity <br />i) Ans. A <br /><br />76. Chi-suare test is used to measure the degree of: <br />a. Causal relationship between exposure and effect. <br />b. Association between two variables. <br />c. Correlation between two variables. <br />d. Agreement between two observations. <br />i) Ans. B <br /><br />77. Elements of primary health care include all of the following except: <br />a. Adeuate supply of safe water and basic sanitation. <br />b. Providing essential drugs. <br />c. Sound referral system. <br />d. Health education. <br />i) Ans. C <br /><br />78. For the calculation of positive predictive value of a screening test, the denominator is comprised of: <br />a. True positive + False negative <br />b. False positive + True negative <br />c. True positive + False positive <br />d. True positive + True negative <br />i) Ans. C <br /><br />79. Elemental iron and folic acid contents of pediatric iron-folic acid tablets supplied under Rural Child Health (RCH) program are: <br />a. 20 mg iron & 100 micrograms folic acid. <br />b. 40 mg iron & 100 micrograms folic acid. <br />c. 40 mg iron & 50 micrograms folic acid. <br />d. 60 mg iron & 100 micrograms folic acid. <br />i) Ans. A <br /><br />80. In the management of leprosy, lepromin test is most useful for: <br />a. Herd immunity <br />b. Prognosis <br />c. Treatment <br />d. Epidemiological investigations <br />i) Ans. B<br /><br />81. A measure of location which divides the distribution in the ratio of 3:1 is: <br />a. Median <br />b. First uartile <br />c. Third uartile <br />d. Mode <br />i) Ans. C<br /><br />82. The following statements about meningococcal meningitis are true, except: <br />a. The source of infection is mainly clinical cases. <br />b. The disease is more common in dry and cold months of the year. <br />c. Chemoprophylaxis of close contacts of cases is recommended. <br />d. The vaccine is not effective in children below 2 years of age. <br />i) Ans. A <br /><br />83. The Protein Efficiency Ratio (PER) is defined as: <br />a. The gain in weight of young animals per unit weight of protein-consumed. <br />b. The product of digestibility coeffecient and biological value. <br />c. The percentage of protein absorbed into the blood. <br />d. The percentage of nitrogen absorbed from the protein absorbed from the diet. <br />i) Ans. A<br /><br />84. The Vitamin A supplement administered in "Prevention of nutritional blindness in children programme" contain: <br />a. 25,000 i.u./ml <br />b. 1 lakh i.u./ml <br />c. 3 lakh i.u./ml <br />d. 5 lakh i.u./ml <br />i) Ans. B<br /><br />85. A 5 year old boy passed 18 loose stools in last 24 hours and vomited twice in last 4 hours. He is irritable but drinking fluids. The optimal therapy for this child is: <br />a. Intravenous fluids <br />b. Oral rehydration therapy <br />c. Intravenous fluid initially for 4 hours followed by oral fluids. <br />d. Plain water add libitum. <br />i) Ans. B<br /><br />86. Study this formula carefully: <br />This denotes: <br />a. Sensitivity. <br />b. Specificity. <br />c. Positive Predictive value. <br />d. Negative Predictive value. <br />i) Ans. A <br /><br />87. The ‘P’ value of a randomized controlled trial comparing operation A (new procedure) and operation B (Gold standard is 0.04). From this, we conclude that: <br />a. Type II error is small and we can accept the findings of the study. <br />b. The probability of false negative conclusion that operation A is better than operation B, when in truth it is not, is 4%. <br />c. The power of study to detect a difference between operation A and B is 96%. <br />d. The probability of a false positive conclusion that operation A is better than operation B, when in truth it is not, is 4%. <br />i) Ans. D <br /><br />88. The commonest cause of low vision in India is: <br />a. Uncorrected refractive error <br />b. Cataract. <br />c. Glaucoma <br />d. Suint. <br />i) Ans. A <br /><br />89. Most important epidemiological tool used for assessing disability in children is: <br />a. Activities of Daily Living (ADL) scale. <br />b. Wing’s Handicaps, Behaviour and Skills (HBS) Schedule. <br />c. Binet and Simon I tests. <br />d. Physical uality of Life Index (PLI). <br />i) Ans. B<br /><br />90. Scope of family planning services include all of the following except: <br />a. Screening for cervical cancer. <br />b. Providing services for unmarried mothers. <br />c. Screening for HIV infection. <br />d. Providing adoption services. <br />i) Ans. C<br /><br />91. Class II exposure in animal bites includes the following: <br />a. Scratches without oozing of blood. <br />b. Licks on a fresh wound. <br />c. Scratch with oozing of blood on palm. <br />d. Bites from wild animals. <br />i) Ans. B <br /><br />92. Elemental iron and folic acid contents of iron and folic acid adult tablets supplied under the "National Programme for Anaemia Prophylaxis" are: <br />a. 60 mg of elemental iron and 250 microgram of folic acid. <br />b. 100 mg of elemental iron and 500 micrograms of folic acid. <br />c. 20 mg of elemental iron and 750 micrograms of folic acid. <br />d. 200 mg of elemental iron and 1000 micro-grams of folic acid. <br />i) Ans. B<br /><br />93. Denominator while calculating the secondary attack rate includes: <br />a. All the people living in next fifty houses. <br />b. All the close contacts. <br />c. All susceptibles amongst close contact. <br />d. All susceptibles in the whole village. <br />i) Ans. C <br /><br />94. The response which is graded by an observer on an agree or disagree continuum is based on: <br />a. Visual analog scale. <br />b. Guttman scale. <br />c. Likert scale. <br />d. Adjectival scale. <br />i) Ans. C <br /><br />95. For calculation of sample size for a prevalence study all of the following are necessary except: <br />a. Prevalence of disease in population. <br />b. Power of the study. <br />c. Significance level. <br />d. Desired precision. <br />i) Ans. D <br /><br />96. Leprosy is considered a public health problem if the prevalence of leprosy is more than: <br />a. 1 per 10,000 <br />b. 2 per 10,000 <br />c. 5 per 10,000 <br />d. 10 per 10,000 <br />i) Ans. A<br /><br />97. For controlling an outbreak of cholera, all of the following measures are recommended except: <br />a. Mass chemoprophylaxis. <br />b. Proper disposal of excreta. <br />c. Chlorination of water. <br />d. Early detection and management of cases. <br />e. Ans. A<br /><br />98. A child aged 24 months was brought to the Primary Health Centre with complaints of cough and fever for the past 2 days. On examination, the child weighed 11 kg., respiratory rate was 38 per minute, chest indrawing was present. The most appropriate line of management for this patient is? <br />a. Classify as pneumonia and refer urgently to secondary level hospital. <br />b. Classify as pneumonia, start antibiotics and advise to report after 2 days. <br />c. Classify as severe pneumonia, start antibiotics and refer urgently. <br />d. Classify as severe pneumonia and refer urgently. <br />e. Ans. C<br /><br />MEDICINE<br />99. The syndromic management of urethral discharge includes treatment of: <br />a. Neisseria gonorrhoeae and herpes genitalis. <br />b. Chlamydia trachomatis and herpes genitalis. <br />c. Neisseria gonorrhoeae and Chlamydia trachomatis. <br />d. Syphilis and chancroid. <br />i) Ans. C<br /><br />100. A 56 year old man presents in the casualty with severe chest pain and difficulty in breathing. His ECG was taken immediately. The above ECG suggest the following diagnosis: <br />a. Ventricular fibrillation <br />b. Acute pulmonary embolism <br />c. Second degree heart block <br />d. Atrial fibrillation <br />i) Ans. B <br /><br />101. All of the following infections are often associated with acute intravascular hemolysis except: <br />a. Clostridium tetani <br />b. Bartonella bacilliformis <br />c. Plasmodium falciparum <br />d. Babesia microti <br />i) Ans. A <br /><br />102. All of the following are the electrocardiographic features of severe hyperkalemia except: <br />a. Peaked T waves <br />b. Presence of U waves <br />c. Sine wave pattern <br />d. Loss of P waves <br />i) Ans. B<br /><br />103. The correct seuence of cell cycle is: <br />a. G0 - G1 - S - G2 - M <br />b. G0 - G1 - G2 - S - M <br />c. G0 - M - G2 - S - G1 <br />d. G0 - G1 - S - M - G2 <br />i) Ans. A <br /><br />104. Commonest cause of sporadic encephalitis is: <br />a. Japanese B Virus <br />b. Herpes Simplex Virus <br />c. Human Immunodeficiency Virus <br />d. Rubeola Virus <br />i) Ans. B<br /><br />105. Raised serum level of lipoprotein - (a) is a predictor of: <br />a. Cirrhosis of liver <br />b. Rheumatic arthritis <br />c. Atherosclerosis <br />d. Cervical cancer <br />i) Ans. C<br /><br />106. Haemorrhage secondary to heparin administration can be best corrected by administration of: <br />a. Vitamin K <br />b. Whole blood <br />c. Protamine <br />d. Ascorbic acid <br />i) Ans. C <br /><br />107. Which one of the following conditions may lead to exudative pleural effusion: <br />a. Cirrhosis <br />b. Nephrotic syndrome <br />c. Congestive heart failure <br />d. Bronchogenic carcinoma <br />i) Ans. D <br /><br />108. A 60 year old man is diagnosed to be suffering from Legionnaire’s disease after he returns home from attending a convention. He could have acuired it: <br />a. From a person suffering from the infection while travelling in the aeroplane. <br />b. From a chronic carrier in the convention center. <br />c. From inhalation of the aerosol in the air-conditioned room at convention center. <br />d. By sharing an infected towel with a fellow delegate at the convention. <br />i) Ans. C<br /><br />109. In a post-operative intensive care unit, five patients developed post-operative wound infection on the same day. The best method to prevent cross infection occurring in other patients in the same ward is to: <br />a. Give antibiotics to all other patients in the ward. <br />b. Fumigate the ward. <br />c. Disinfect the ward with sodium hypochlorite. <br />d. Practice proper hand washing. <br />i) Ans. D<br /><br />110. The earliest immunoglobulin to be synthesized by the fetus is: <br />a. IgA <br />b. IgG <br />c. IgE <br />d. IgM <br />i) Ans. D<br /><br />111. The following are true regarding Lyme’s disease, except: <br />a. It is transmitted by Ixodes tick. <br />b. Erythema chronicum migrans may be a clinical feature. <br />c. Borrelia recurrentis is the aetiological agent. <br />d. Rodents act as natural hosts. <br />i) Ans. C<br /><br />112. A couple, with a family history of beta thalassemia major in a distant relative, has come for counselling. The husband has HbA2 of 4.8% and the wife has HbA2 of 2.3%. The risk of having a child with beta thalassemia major is: <br />a. 50% <br />b. 25% <br />c. 5% <br />d. 0% <br />i) Ans. D<br /><br />113. A 2 month old baby with acute icteric viral hepatitis like illness slips into encephalopathy after 48 hours. The mother is a known hepatitis B carrier. Mother’s hepatitis B virus serological profile is most likely to be: <br />a. HBsAg positive only <br />b. HBsAg and HBeAg positive <br />c. HBsAg and HBe antibody positive <br />d. HBV DNA positive <br />i) Ans. C<br /><br />114. A 7 year old girl from Bihar presented with three episodes of massive hematemesis and melena. There is no history of jaundice. On examination, she had a large spleen, non-palpable liver and mild ascites. Portal vein was not visualised on ultrasonography. Liver function tests were normal and endoscopy revealed esophageal varices. The most likely diagnosis is: <br />a. Kala azar with portal hypertension <br />b. Portal hypertension of unknown etiology <br />c. Chronic liver disease with portal hypertension <br />d. Portal hypertension due to extrahepatic obstruction. <br />i) Ans. D<br /><br />115. A 40 year old male had undergone splenectomy 20 years ago. Peripheral blood smear examination would show the presence of: <br />a. Dohle bodies <br />b. Hypersegmented neutrophils <br />c. Spherocytes <br />d. Howell-Jolly bodies <br />i) Ans. D<br /><br />116. Which of the heart valve is most likely to be involved by infective endocarditis following a septic abortion? <br />a. Aortic valve <br />b. Tricuspid valve <br />c. Pulmonary valve <br />d. Mitral valve <br />i) Ans. B <br /><br />117. Central nervous system manifestations in chronic renal failure are a result of all of the following, except: <br />a. Hyperosmolarity <br />b. Hypocalcemia <br />c. Acidosis <br />d. Hyponatremia <br />e. Ans. A<br /><br />118. Medullary carcinoma of the thyroid is associated with which of the following syndrome: <br />a. MEN I <br />b. MEN II <br />c. Fraumeni syndrome <br />d. Hashimoto’s syndrome <br />i) Ans. B<br /><br />119. Which of the following statements represent most correct interpretation from the ECG waveform given below: <br />a. X-originated from an atrial ectopic focus. <br />b. X reset the cardiac rhythm. <br />c. Both heart sounds would have been present at X beat. <br />d. The path of spread of excitation was normal. <br />i) Ans. B<br /><br />120. A 60 year old male presented to the emergency with breathlessness, facial swelling and dilated veins on the chest wall. The most common cause is: <br />a. Thymoma. <br />b. Lung cancer. <br />c. Hodgkin’s lymphoma. <br />d. Superior vena caval obstruction. <br />i) Ans. B<br /><br />121. All of the following conditions may predispose to pulmonary embolism except: <br />a. Protein S deficiency. <br />b. Malignancy. <br />c. Obesity. <br />d. Progesterone therapy. <br />i) Ans. D<br /><br />122. An early systolic murmur may be caused by all of the following except: <br />a. Small ventricular septal defect. <br />b. Papillary muscle dysfunction. <br />c. Tricuspid regurgitation. <br />d. Aortic stenosis. <br />i) Ans. D<br /><br />123. Troponin-T is preferable to CPK-MB in the diagnosis of acute myocardial infarction (MI) in all of the following situations except: <br />a. Bedside diagnosis of MI. <br />b. Postoperatively (after CABG). <br />c. Reinfarction after 4 days. <br />d. Small infarcts. <br />i) Ans. C<br /><br />124. The most common cause of tricuspid regurgitation is secondary to: <br />a. Rheumatic heart disease. <br />b. Dilatation of right ventricle. <br />c. Coronary artery disease. <br />d. Endocarditis due to intravenous drug abuse. <br />i) Ans. B<br /><br />125. Absence seizures are characterized on EEG by: <br />a. 3 Hz spike & wave <br />b. 1-2 Hz spike & wave. <br />c. Generalized polyspikes. <br />d. Hypsarrythmia. <br />i) Ans. A <br /><br />126. All of the following are associated with low C3 levels except: <br />a. Post streptococcal glomerulonephritis. <br />b. Membrano-proliferative glomerulonephritis. <br />c. Goodpasture’s disease. <br />d. Systemic lupus erythematosus. <br />i) Ans. C<br /><br />127. Normal anion gap metabolic acidosis is caused by: <br />a. Cholera. <br />b. Starvation. <br />c. Ethylene glycol poisoning. <br />d. Lactic acidosis. <br />i) Ans. A <br /><br />128. Diagnostic features of allergic broncho-pulmonary aspergillosis (ABPA) include all of the following except: <br />a. Changing pulmonary infiltrates. <br />b. Peripheral eosinophilia. <br />c. Serum precipitins against Aspergillous fumigatus. <br />d. Occurrence in patients with old cavitary lesions. <br />i) Ans. D <br /><br />129. The syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone is characterized by the following: <br />a. Hyponatremia and urine sodium excretion > 20 mE/l. <br />b. Hypernatremia and urine sodium excretion > 20 mE/l. <br />c. Hyponatremia and hyperkalemia. <br />d. Hypernatremia and hypokalemia. <br />i) Ans. A<br /><br />130. All of the following heart sounds occur shortly after S2 except: <br />a. Opening snap. <br />b. Pericardial knock. <br />c. Ejection click. <br />d. Tumor plop. <br />i) Ans. C<br /><br />131. Pulmonary hypertension may occur in all of the following conditions except: <br />a. Toxic oil syndrome. <br />b. Progressive systemic sclerosis. <br />c. Sickle cell anaemia. <br />d. Argemone mexicana poisoning. <br />i) Ans. D<br /><br />132. Causes of metabolic alkalosis include all the following, except: <br />a. Mineralocorticoid deficiency. <br />b. Bartter’s syndrome. <br />c. Thiazide diuretic therapy. <br />d. Recurrent vomiting. <br />i) Ans. A <br /><br />133. The most freuent cause of recurrent genital ulceration in a sexually active male is: <br />a. Herpes genitalis. <br />b. Aphthous ulcer. <br />c. Syphilis. <br />d. Chancroid. <br />i) Ans. A <br /><br />134. The most effective drug against M. leprae is: <br />a. Dapsone. <br />b. Rifampicin. <br />c. Clofazimine. <br />d. Prothionamide. <br />i) Ans. B<br /><br />135. A 30-year old HIV positive patient presents with fever, dyspnoea and non-productive cough, patient is cyanosed. His chest X-ray reveals bilateral, symmetrical interstitial infiltrates. The most likely diagnosis is: <br />a. Tuberculosis. <br />b. Cryptococcosis. <br />c. Pneunocystis carinii pneumonia. <br />d. Toxoplasmosis. <br />i) Ans. C<br /><br />136. Extensive pleural thickening and calcification especially involving the diaphragmatic pleura are classical features of: <br />a. Coal worker’s pneumoconiosis. <br />b. Asbestosis. <br />c. Silicosis. <br />d. Siderosis. <br />i) Ans. B<br /><br />137. Commonest presentation of neurocysticercosis is: <br />a. Seizures. <br />b. Focal neurological deficits. <br />c. Dementia <br />d. Radiculopathy. <br />i) Ans. A<br /><br />138. A 55-year old man who has been on bed rest for the past 10 days, complains of breathlessness and chest pain. The chest X-ray is normal. The next investigation should be: <br />a. Lung ventilation-perfusion scan. <br />b. Pulmonary arteriography. <br />c. Pulmonary venous angiography. <br />d. Echocardiography. <br />i) Ans. B<br /><br />139. A 60-year old man with diabetes mellitus presents with painless, swollen right ankle joint. Radiograph of the ankle shows destroyed joint with large number of loose bodies. The most probable diagnosis is: <br />a. Charcot’s joint <br />b. Clutton’s joint <br />c. Osteoarthritis. <br />d. Rheumatoid arthritis. <br />i) Ans. A <br /><br />140. All of the following statements regarding the ECG in acute pericarditis are true except: <br />a. T wave inversion develop before ST elevations return to baseline. <br />b. Global ST segment elevation is seen in early pericarditis. <br />c. Sinus tachycardia is a common finding. <br />d. PR segment depression is present in majority of patients. <br />i) Ans. A <br /><br />141. Type IV hypersensitivity to Mycobacterium tuberculosis antigen may manifest as: <br />a. Iridocyclitis. <br />b. Polyarteritis nodosa. <br />c. Phlyctenular conjunctivitis. <br />d. Giant cell arteritis. <br />i) Ans. C<br /><br />142. The blood gas parameters: pH 7.58, pCO2 23 mmHg, PO2 300 mmHg and oxygen saturation 60% are most consistent with: <br />a. Carbon monoxide poisoning. <br />b. Ventilatory malfunction. <br />c. Voluntary hyperventilation. <br />d. Methyl alcohol poisoning. <br />i) Ans. A <br /><br />143. Most suitable radioisotope of iodine for treating hyperthyroidism is: <br />a. I123 <br />b. I125 <br />c. I131 <br />d. I132 <br />i) Ans. C<br /><br />144. In the presence of vasopressin the greatest fraction of filtered water is reabsorbed in which part of the nephron: <br />a. Proximal tubule. <br />b. Distal tubule. <br />c. Loope of Henle. <br />d. Collecting duct. <br />i) Ans. A<br /><br />145. All of the following statements are correct about potassium balance, except: <br />a. Most of potassium is intracellular. <br />b. Three uarter of the total body potassium is found in skeletal muscle. <br />c. Intracellular potassium is released into extra-cellular space in response to severe injury. <br />d. Acidosis leads to movement of potassium from extracellular to intracellular fluid compartment. <br />i) Ans. D<br /><br />146. Hypocalcemia is characterized by all of the following features except: <br />a. Numbness and tingling of circumoral region. <br />b. Hyperactive tendon reflexes. <br />c. Shortening of -T interval in ECG. <br />d. Carpopedal spasm. <br />i) Ans. C <br /><br />147. Which of the following is not true about Berger’s disease? <br />a. The pathologic changes are proliferation and usually confined to mesangial cells; usually focal and segmental. <br />b. Hematuria may be gross or microscopic. <br />c. On immunoflurorescence deposits contain both IgA and IgG. <br />d. Absence of associated proteinuria is pathognomonic. <br />i) Ans. D<br /><br />148. All of the following are risk factors for deep vein thrombosis (DVT) except: <br />a. Duration of surgery more than thirty minutes. <br />b. Obesity. <br />c. Age less than forty years. <br />d. Use of the oestrogen-progesterone contraceptive pills. <br />i) Ans. C<br /><br />149. A labourer involved with repair-work of sewers was admitted with fever, jaundice and renal failure. The most appropriate test to diagnose the infection in this patient is: <br />a. Weil Felix test. <br />b. Paul Bunnel test. <br />c. Microscopic agglutination test. <br />d. Micro immunofluorescence test. <br />i) Ans. C<br /><br />150. Memory T cells can be identified by using the following marker: <br />a. CD45 RA. <br />b. CD45 RB. <br />c. CD45 RC. <br />d. CD45 RO. <br />i) Ans. D <br /><br />151. All of the following statements about NK cells are true, except: <br />a. They are derived from large granular cells. <br />b. They comprise about 5% of human peripheral lymphoid cells. <br />c. They are MHC restricted cytotoxic cells. <br />d. They express IgG Fc receptors. <br />i) Ans. C<br /><br />152. Which of the following increases the susceptibility to coronary artery disease: <br />a. Type V hyperlipoproteinaemia. <br />b. Von Willebrandt’s disease. <br />c. Nephrotic syndrome. <br />d. Systemic lupus erythematosus. <br />i) Ans. D<br /><br />153. MHC class III genes encode: <br />a. Complement component C3. <br />b. Tumor necrosis factor. <br />c. Interleukin 2. <br />d. Beta 2 microglobulin. <br />i) Ans. B<br /><br />154. Gluten sensitive enteropathy is most strongly associated with: <br />a. HLA-D2. <br />b. HLA-DR4. <br />c. HLA-D3. <br />d. Blood group ‘B’. <br />i) Ans. A <br /><br />155. Most sensitive and specific test for diagnosis of iron deficiency is: <br />a. Serum iron levels. <br />b. Serum ferritin levels. <br />c. Serum transferrin receptor population. <br />d. Transferrin saturation. <br />i) Ans. B<br /><br />156. All of the following are poor prognostic factors for acute myeloid leukemias, except: <br />a. Age more than 60 years. <br />b. Leucocyte count more than 1,00,000/µl. <br />c. Secondary leukemias. <br />d. Presence of t(8;21). <br />i) Ans. D<br /><br />157. Leukoerythroblastic picture may be seen in all of the following, except: <br />a. Myelofibrosis. <br />b. Metastatic carcinoma. <br />c. Gaucher’s disease. <br />d. Thalassemia. <br />i) Ans. D <br /><br />158. Cardiac or central nervous system toxicity may result when standard lidocaine doses are administered to patients with circulatory failure. This may be due to the following reason: <br />a. Lidocaine concentration are initially higher in relatively well perfused tissues such as brain and heart. <br />b. Histamine receptors in brain and heart gets suddenly activated in circulatory failure. <br />c. There is a sudden out-bursts of release of adrenaline, noradrenaline and dopamine in brain and heart. <br />d. Lidocaine is converted into a toxic metabolite due to its longer stay in liver. <br />i) Ans. A <br /><br />159. All of the following are useful intravenous therapy for hypertensive emergencies, except: <br />a. Fenoldopam. <br />b. Urapidil. <br />c. Enalapril. <br />d. Nifedipine. <br />i) Ans. D<br /><br />160. Cardiac output measured by thermodilution techniue is unreliable in all of the following situations except: <br />a. Ventricular septal defect. <br />b. Tricuspid regurgitation. <br />c. Low cardiac output. <br />d. Pulmonary regurgitation. <br />i) Ans. A<br /><br />161. Exercise testing is absolutely contraindi-cated in which one of the following: <br />a. One week following myocardial infarction. <br />b. Unstable angina. <br />c. Aortic stenosis. <br />d. Peripheral vascular disease. <br />i) Ans. B <br /><br />162. A nineteen year old female with short stature, wide spread nipples and primary amenorrhoea most likely has a karyotype of: <br />a. 47, XX+18. <br />b. 46, XXY. <br />c. 47, XXY. <br />d. 45 X. <br />i) Ans. D<br /><br />163. Osteomalacia is associated with: <br />a. Decrease in osteoid volume. <br />b. Decrease in osteoid surface. <br />c. Increase in osteoid maturation time. <br />d. Increase in mineral apposition rate. <br />i) Ans. C<br /><br />164. A 23-year old woman has experienced episodes of myalgias, pleural effusion, pericarditis and arthralgias without joint deformity over course of several years. The best laboratory screening test to diagnose her disease would be: <br />a. CD4 lymphocyte count. <br />b. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate. <br />c. Antinuclear antibody. <br />d. Assay for thyroid hormones. <br />i) Ans. C<br /><br />165. A 5-year old boy is detected to be HBsAg positive on two separate occasions during a screening program for hepatitis B. He is otherwise asymptomatic. Child was given 3 doses of recombinant hepatitis B vaccine at the age of one year. His mother was treated for chronic hepatitis B infection around the same time. The next relevant step for further investigating the child would be to: <br />a. Obtain HBe Ag and anti-HBe antibodies. <br />b. Obtain anti-HBs levels. <br />c. Repeat HBsAg. <br />d. Repeat another course of hepatitis B vaccine. <br />i) Ans. A<br /><br />166. Which of the following hepatitis viruses have significant perinatal transmission: <br />a. Hepatitis E virus. <br />b. Hepatitis C virus <br />c. Hepatitis B virus. <br />d. Hepatitis A virus. <br />i) Ans. C<br /><br />167. The diffusion capacity of lung (DLCO) is decreased in all of the following conditions except: <br />a. Interstitial lung disease. <br />b. Goodpasture’s syndrome. <br />c. Emphysema. <br />d. Primary pulmonary hypertension. <br />i) Ans. B<br /><br />168. Osler’s nodes are typically seen in which one of the following: <br />a. Chronic candida endocarditis. <br />b. Acute staphylococcal endocarditis. <br />c. Pseudomonas endocarditis. <br />d. Libman sack’s endocarditis. <br />i) Ans. B <br /><br />169. Thiamine deficiency is known to occur in all of the following except: <br />a. Food Faddist. <br />b. Homocystinemia <br />c. Chronic alcoholic <br />d. Chronic heart failure patients on diuretics. <br />i) Ans. B<br /><br />170. Radiation exposure during infancy has been linked to which one of the following carcinoma: <br />a. Breast. <br />b. Melanoma. <br />c. Thyroid. <br />d. Lung. <br />i) Ans. C<br /><br />171. Recurrent ischemic events following thrombolysis has been pathophysiologically linked to which of the following factors: <br />a. Antibodies to thrombolytic agents. <br />b. Fibrinopeptide A. <br />c. Lipoprotein (a) [Lp(a)]. <br />d. Triglycerides. <br />i) Ans. A<br /><br />172. Which of the following is pan-T lymphocyte marker? <br />a. CD2. <br />b. CD3. <br />c. CD19. <br />d. CD25 <br />i) Ans. B<br /><br />173. Following are the features of corticospinal involvement except: <br />a. Cog-wheel rigidity. <br />b. Spasticity. <br />c. Plantar extensor response. <br />d. Exaggerated deep tendon reflexes. <br />i) Ans. A<br /><br />174. Positive feedback action of estrogen for inducting luteinizing hormone surge is associated with one of the following steroid hormone ratios in peripheral circulation: <br />a. High estrogen : low progesterone. <br />b. Low estrogen : high progesterone. <br />c. Low estrogen : low progestrone <br />d. High estrogen : high progesterone. <br />i) Ans. A<br /><br />175. A post-operative cardiac surgical patient developed sudden hypotension, raised central venous pressure, pulsus paradoxus at the 4th post operative hour. The most probable diagnosis is: <br />a. Excessive mediastinal bleeding. <br />b. Ventricular dysfunction. <br />c. Congestive cardiac failure. <br />d. Cardiac tamponade. <br />i) Ans. D<br /><br />PEDIATRICS <br />176. All of the following may occur in Noonan’s syndrome except: <br />a. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy. <br />b. Cryptorchidism. <br />c. Infertility in females. <br />d. Autosomal dominant transmission. <br />i) Ans. C <br /><br />177. In an single visit, a 9-month old, unimmunized child can be given the following vaccination: <br />a. Only BCG. <br />b. BCG, DPT-1, OPV-1. <br />c. DPT-1, OPV-1, Measles. <br />d. BCG, DPT-1 OPV-1, Measles. <br />i) Ans. D<br /><br />178. An eight-year old boy had abdominal pain, fever with bloody diarrhea for 18 months. His height is 110 cms and weight is 14.5 kg. Stool culture was negative for known enteropathogens. The sigmoidoscopy was normal. During the same period, child had an episode of renal colic and passed urinary gravel. The mantoux test was 5 × 5 mm. The most probable diagnosis is: <br />a. Ulcerative colitis. <br />b. Crohn’s disease. <br />c. Intestinal tuberculosis. <br />d. Strongyloidosis. <br />i) Ans. B <br /><br />179. A 45-day old infant developed icterus and two days later symptoms and signs of acute liver failure appeared. Child was found to be positive for HBsAg. The mother was also HBs Ag carrier. The mother’s hepatitis B serological profile is likely to be: <br />a. HBsAg positive only. <br />b. HBsAg and HbeAg positivity. <br />c. HBsAg and anti-HBe antibody positivity. <br />d. Mother infected with mutant HBV. <br />i) Ans. B<br /><br />180. A 15-year old healthy boy with no major medical problem complaints that he breaks out with blocky areas of erythema that are pruritic over skin of his arm, leg and trunk every time within an hour of eating sea foods. The clinical features are suggestive of: <br />a. Localised immune-complex deposition. <br />b. Cell mediated hypersensitivity. <br />c. Localized anaphylaxis. <br />d. Release of complement C3b. <br />i) Ans. C <br /><br />181. A 2-month baby presents with history of jaundice, turmeric colored urine and pale stools since birth. Examination reveals liver span of 10 cms, firm in consistency and spleen of 3 cms. The most specific investigation for establishing the diagnosis would be: <br />a. Liver function tests. <br />b. Ultrasound abdomen. <br />c. Peroperative cholangiogram. <br />d. Liver biopsy.<br />i) Ans. D <br /><br />182. Transient myeloproliferative disorder of the newborn is seen in association with: <br />a. Turner syndrome. <br />b. Down syndrome. <br />c. Neurofibromatosis. <br />d. Ataxia telangiectasia. <br />i) Ans. B<br /><br />183. A 1-month old baby presents with freuent vomiting and failure to thrive. There are features of moderate dehydration. Blood sodium is 122 mE/l and potassium is 6.1 mE/l. The most likely diagnosis is: <br />a. Gitelman syndrome. <br />b. Bartter Syndrome <br />c. 21-hydroxylase deficiency. <br />d. hydroxylase deficiency.D. 11- <br />i) Ans. C<br /><br />184. A male child of 15 years, with a mental age of 9 years has an I of: <br />a. 50 <br />b. 60 <br />c. 70 <br />d. 80 <br />i) Ans B <br /><br />185. The most appropriate drug used for chelation therapy in beta thalassemia major is: <br />a. Oral desferrioxamine<br />b. Oral deferiprone<br />c. Intramuscular EDTA<br />d. Oral Succimer<br />i) Ans B <br /><br />186. Which endocrine disorder is associated with epiphyseal dysgenesis ? <br />a. Hypothyroidism<br />b. Cushings syndrome<br />c. Addison’s disease<br />d. Hypoparathyroidism<br />i) Ans A<br /><br />187. An albino girl gets married to a normal boyWhat are the chances of their having an affected child and what are the chances of their children being carriers? <br />a. None affected, all carriers<br />b. All normal<br />c. 50% carriers<br />d. 50% affected, 50% carriers<br />i) Ans A<br /> <br />188. Which one of the following statements is false with regard to Xanthogranulomatous pyelonephritis in children<br />a. Often affects those younger than 8 years of age<br />b. It affects the kidney focally more freuently than diffusely<br />c. Boys are affected more freuently<br />d. Clinical presentation in children is same as in adults<br />i) Ans D <br /><br />189. Which one of the following statements is false with regard to pyuria in children? <br />a. Presence of more than 5 WBC/hpf (high power field) for girls and more than 3 WBC/hpf for boys<br />b. Infection can occur without pyuria<br />c. Pyuria may be present without urinary tract infection<br />d. Isolated pyuria is neither confirmatory nor diagnostic for urinary tract infection<br />i) Ans D <br /><br />190. Which one of the following is the most common cause of abdominal mass in neonates? <br />a. Neuroblastoma<br />b. Wilm’s tumour<br />c. Distended bladder<br />d. Multicystic dysplastic kidneys<br />i) Ans D <br /><br /><br />DERMATOLOGY <br />191. Acantholysis is characterstic of: <br />a. Pemphigus vulgaris <br />b. Pemphigoid <br />c. Erythema multiforme <br />d. Dermatitis herpetiformis <br />i) Ans A<br /> <br />192. A 5 year old boy has multiple asymptomatic oval and circular faintly hypopigmented macules with scaling on his faceThe most probable clinical diagnosis is: <br />a. Pityriasis versicolor<br />b. Indeterminate leprosy<br />c. Pityriasis alba<br />d. Acrofacial vitiligo<br />i) Ans C<br /><br />193. A 40-year old male developed persistent oral ulcers followed by multiple flaccid bullae on trunk and extremitiesDirect examination of a skin biopsy immunofluorescence showed intercellular IgG deposits in the epidermisThe most probable diagnosis is: <br />a. Pemphigus vulgaris<br />b. Bullous pemphigoid<br />c. Bullous lupus erythematosus<br />d. Epidermolysis bullosa acuisita<br />i) Ans A <br /><br />194. The test likely to help in diagnosis of a patient who presents with an itchy annular plaue on the face is: <br />a. Gram’s stain<br />b. Potassium hydroxide mount<br />c. Tissue smear<br />d. Wood’s lamp examination<br />i) Ans B <br /><br />195. An eleven year old boy is having tinea capitis on his scalpThe most appropriate line of treatment is: <br />a. Oral griseofulvin therapy<br />b. Topical griseofulvin therapy<br />c. Shaving of the scalp<br />d. Selenium sulphide shampoo<br />i) Ans A<br /> <br />196. An 8 month old child presented with itchy, exudative lesions on the face, palms and solesThe sibling also have similar com-plaintsThe treatment of choice in such a patient is: <br />a. Systemic ampicillin<br />b. Topical betamethasone<br />c. Systemic prednisolone<br />d. Topical permethrin<br />i) Ans D<br /> <br /><br />PSYCHIATRY <br />197. Which of the following symbol represent adopted individuals: <br />a. A<br />b. B<br />c. C<br />d. D<br />i) Ans D<br /> <br />198. All of the following are features of hallucinations, except: <br />a. It is independent of the will of the observer<br />b. Sensory organs are not involved<br />c. It is as vivid as that in a true sense perception<br />d. It occurs in the absence of a perceptual stimulus<br />i) Ans B<br /> <br />199. Delirium tremens is characterized by confusion associated with: <br />a. Autonomic hyperactivity and tremors<br />b. Features of intoxication due to alcohol<br />c. Sixth nerve palsy<br />d. Korsakoff psychosis<br />i) Ans A<br /> <br />200. All of the following are impulse control disorders except: <br />a. Pyromania<br />b. Trichotillomania<br />c. Kleptomania<br />d. Capgras’ syndrome<br />i) Ans D<br /><br />201. A 20-year old man has presented with increased alcohol consumption and sexual indulgence, irritability, lack of sleep and not feeling fatigued even on prolonged periods of activityAll these changes have been present for 3 weeksThe most likely diagnosis is: <br />a. Alcohol dependence<br />b. Schizophrenia<br />c. Mania<br />d. Impulsive control disorder<br />i) Ans C<br /> <br />202. An alcoholic is brought to the Emergency OPD with the complaint of irrelevant talkingHe had stopped using alcohol three days backOn examination, he is found to be disoriented to time, place and personHe also has visual illusions and hallucinationsThere is no history of head injuryThe most likely diagnosis is: <br />a. Dementia praecox<br />b. Derlirium tremens<br />c. Schizophrenia<br />d. Korsakoff’s psychosis<br />i) Ans B<br /> <br />203. A 41-year old married female presented with headache for the last 6 monthsShe had several consultationsAll her investigations were found to be within normal limitsShe still insists that there is something wrong in her head and seeks another consultationThe most likely diagnosis is: <br />a. Phobia<br />b. Psychogenic headache<br />c. Hypochondriasis<br />d. Depression<br />i) Ans C<br /> <br />204. Behavior therapy to change maladaptive behaviors using response as reinforcer uses the principles of: <br />a. Classical conditioning<br />b. Moneling<br />c. Social learning<br />d. Operant conditioning<br />i) Ans D<br /> <br />205. A 15 year old boy feels that the dirt has hung onto him whenever he passes through the dirty streetThis repetitive thought causes much distress and anxietyHe knows that there is actually no such thing after he has cleaned once but he is not satisfied and is compelled to think soThis has led to social withdrawalHe spends much of his time thinking about the dirt and contaminationThis has affected his studies alsoThe most likely diagnosis is: <br />a. Obsessive compulsive disorder<br />b. Conduct disorder<br />c. Agoraphobia<br />d. Adjustment disorder<br />i) Ans A<br /> <br />206. A 50 year old man has presented with pain in back, lack of interest in recreational activities, low mood, lethargy, decreased sleep and appetite for two monthsThere was no history suggestive of delusions or hallucinationsHe did not suffer from any chronic medical illnessThere was no family history of psychiatric illnessRoutine investigations including haemogram, renal function tests, liver functions tests, electrocardiogram did not reveal any abnormalityThis patient should be treated with: <br />a. Haloperidol<br />b. Sertraline<br />c. Alprazolam<br />d. Olanzapine<br />i) Ans B<br /> <br /><br />GENERAL SURGERY <br />207. A 70 year old male patient presented with history of chest pain and was diagnosed to have coronary artery diseaseDuring routine evaluation, an ultrasound of the abdomen showed presence of gallbladder stonesThere was no past history of biliary colic or jaundiceWhat is the best treatment advice for such a patient for his gallbladder stones: <br />a. Open cholecystectomy <br />b. Laparoscopic cholecystectomy <br />c. No surgery for gallbladder stones <br />d. ERCP and removal of gallbladder stones <br />i) Ans C<br /> <br />208. Early stage of trauma is characterized by: <br />a. Catabolism<br />b. Anabolism<br />c. Glycogenesis<br />d. Gluconeogenesis<br />i) Ans A<br /> <br />209. Bedsore is an example of: <br />a. Tropical ulcer <br />b. Trophic ulcer <br />c. Venous ulcer <br />d. Post thrombotic ulcer <br />i) Ans B<br /> <br />210. Marjolin’s ulcer is: <br />a. Malignant ulcer found on the scar of burn<br />b. Malignant ulcer found on infected foot<br />c. Trophic ulcer<br />d. Meleney’s gangrene<br />i) Ans A<br /> <br />211. If a patient with Raynaud’s disease immer-sed his hand in cold water, the hand will: <br />a. Become red<br />b. Remain unchanged<br />c. Turn white<br />d. Become blue<br />i) Ans C<br /><br />212. The best treatment for cystic hygroma is: <br />a. Surgical excision<br />b. Radiotherapy<br />c. Sclerotherapy<br />d. Chemotherapy<br />i) Ans A<br /> <br />213. Which of the following is most suggestive of neonatal small bowel obstruction: <br />a. Generalised abdominal distension<br />b. Failure to pass meconeum in the first 24 hours<br />c. Bilious vomiting<br />d. Refusal of feeds<br />i) Ans C<br /> <br />214. What is most characteristic of congenital hypertrophic pyloric stenosis: <br />a. Affects the first born female child<br />b. The pyloric tumour is best felt during feeding<br />c. The patient is commonly marasmic<br />d. Loss of appetite occurs early<br />i) Ans B<br /> <br />215. Which of the following lasers is used for treatment of benign prostatic hyperplasia as well as urinary calculi? <br />a. CO2 laser <br />b. Excimer laser <br />c. Ho : YAG laser <br />d. Nd : YAG laser <br />i) Ans C<br /> <br />216. What is the most appropriate operation for a solitary nodule in one lobe of thyroid: <br />a. Lobectomy <br />b. Hemithyroidectomy<br />c. Nodule removal<br />d. Partial lobectomy with 1 cm margin around nodule<br />i) Ans B<br /> <br />217. A posteriorly perforating ulcer in the pyloric antrum of the stomach is most likely to produce initial localized peritonitis or abscess formation in the following: <br />a. Omental bursa (lesser sac) <br />b. Greater sac <br />c. Right subphrenic space <br />d. Hepatorenal space (pouch of Morrison) <br />i) Ans A<br /> <br />218. A 65-year old male smoker presents with gross total painless hematuriaThe most likely diagnosis is: <br />a. Carcinoma urinary bladder<br />b. Benign prostatic hyperplasia<br />c. Carcinoma prostate<br />d. Cystolithiasis<br />i) Ans A<br /> <br />219. A 10-mm calculus in the right lower ureter associated with proximal hydrouretero-nephrosis is best treated with: <br />a. Extracorporeal shockwave lithotripsy<br />b. Antegrade percutaneous access<br />c. Open ureterolithotomy<br />d. Ureteroscopic retrieval<br />i) Ans D<br /> <br />220. Semen analysis of a young man who presented with primary infertility revealed low volume, fructose negative ejaculate with azoospermiaWhich of the following is the most useful imaging modality to evaluate the cause of his infertility ? <br />a. Colour duplex ultrasonography of the scrotum<br />b. Transrectal ultrasonography<br />c. Retrograde urethrography <br />d. Spermatic venography<br />i) Ans B<br /> <br />221. A 70 year old patient with benign prostatic hyperplasia underwent transurethral resection of prostate under spinal anaesthesiaOne hour later, he developed vomiting and altered sensoriumthe most probable cause is: <br />a. Overdosage of spinal anaesthetic agent<br />b. Rupture of bladder<br />c. Hyperkalemia<br />d. Water intoxication<br />i) Ans D<br /> <br />222. A 50-year old male, working as a hotel cook, has four dependent family membersHe has been diagnosed with an early stage suamous cell cancer of anal canalHe has more than 60% chances of cureThe best treatment option is: <br />a. Abdomino-perineal resection<br />b. Combined surgery and radiotherapy<br />c. Combined chemotherapy and radiotherapy<br />d. Chemotherapy alone<br />i) Ans C<br /> <br />223. The commonest cause of an obliterative stricture of the membranous urethra is: <br />a. Fall-astride injury<br />b. Road-traffic accident with fracture pelvis and rupture urethra<br />c. Prolonged catheterization<br />d. Gonococcal infection <br />i) Ans B<br /><br />224. Which of the following is an absolute indication for surgery in cases of benign prostatic hyperplasia: <br />a. Bilateral hydroureteronephrosis<br />b. Nocturnal freuency<br />c. Recurrent urinary tract infection<br />d. Voiding bladder pressures >50 cm of water<br />i) Ans A<br /> <br />225. A 27 year old man presents with a left testicular tumor with a 10 cm retroperitoneal lymph node massThe treatment of choice is: <br />a. Radiotherapy<br />b. Immunotherapy with interferon and inter-leukins<br />c. Left high inguinal orchidectomy plus chemotherapy<br />d. Chemotherapy alone<br />i) Ans C<br /> <br />226. The best time for Surgery of hypospadias is: <br />a. 1-4 months of age<br />b. 6-10 months of age<br />c. 12-18 months of age<br />d. 2-4 years of age<br />i) Ans B<br /><br />227. The Hunterian Ligature operation is performed for: <br />a. Varicose veins<br />b. Arteriovenous fistulae<br />c. Aneurysm<br />d. Acute ischemia<br />i) Ans C<br /> <br />228. Sympathectomy is indicated in all the following conditions except: <br />a. Ischaemic ulcers<br />b. Intermittent claudication<br />c. Anhidrosis<br />d. Acrocyanosis<br />i) Ans C<br /> <br /><br />ORTHOPAEDICS <br />229. Commonest cause for neuralgic pain in foot is: <br />a. Compression of communication between medial and lateral plantar nerve<br />b. Exaggeration of longitudinal arches<br />c. Injury to deltoid ligament<br />d. Shortening of plantar aponeurosis<br />i) Ans A<br /> <br />230. In actinomycosis of the spine, the abscess usually erodes: <br />a. Intervertebral disc <br />b. Into the pleural cavity <br />c. Into the retroperitoneal space <br />d. Towards the SKIN <br />i) Ans D<br /><br />231. A ten-year old girl presents with swelling of one knee jointAll of the following conditions can be considered in the differential diagnosis, except: <br />a. Tuberculosis <br />b. Juvenile rheumatoid arthritis <br />c. Haemophilia <br />d. Villonodular synovitis <br />i) Ans C<br /> <br />232. Avascular necrosis can be a possible seuelae of FRACTURE of all of the following bones, except: <br />a. Femur neck <br />b. Scaphoid <br />c. Talus <br />d. Calcaneum <br />i) Ans D<br /> <br />233. Sciatic nerve palsy may occur in the following injury: <br />a. Posterior dislocation of hip joint<br />b. FRACTURE neck of femur<br />c. Trochanteric FRACTURE <br />d. Anterior dislocation of hip<br />i) Ans A<br /> <br />234. A 30-year old male was brought to the casualty following a road traffic accidentHis physical examination revealed that his right lower limb was short, internally rotated and flexed and adducted at the hipThe most likely diagnosis is: <br />a. FRACTURE neck of femur<br />b. Trochanteric FRACTURE <br />c. Central FRACTURE dislocation of hip<br />d. Posterior dislocation of hip<br />i) Ans D<br /> <br />235. Which one of the following tests will you adopt while examining a knee joint where you suspect an old tear of anterior cruciate ligament? <br />a. Posterior drawer test<br />b. McMurray test<br />c. Lachman test<br />d. Pivot shift test<br />i) Ans C<br /> <br />236. An eight-year old boy presents with back pain and mild feverHis plain X-ray of the dorsolumbar spine reveals a solitary collapsed dorsal vertebra with preserved disc spacesThere was no associated soft tissue shadowThe most likely diagnosis is: <br />a. Ewing’s sarcoma<br />b. Tuberculosis<br />c. Histiocytosis<br />d. Metastasis<br />i) Ans C<br /> <br />237. Kienbock’s disease is due to avascular necrosis of: <br />a. Femoral neck<br />b. Medial cuneiform bone<br />c. Lunate bone<br />d. Scaphoid bone<br />i) Ans C<br /> <br />238. Pseudoclaudication is due to compression of: <br />a. Femoral artery<br />b. Femoral nerve<br />c. Cauda Euina<br />d. Popliteal artery<br />i) Ans C<br /> <br /><br />ANAESTHESIA <br />239. An anaesthetist orders a new attendent to bring the oxygen cylinderHe will ask the attendent to identify the correct cylinder by following color code: <br />a. Black cylinder with white shoulder<br />b. Black cylinder with grey shoulder<br />c. White cylinder with black shoulder<br />d. Grey cylinder with white shoulder<br />i) Ans A<br /> <br />240. During rapid seuence induction of Anaesthesia : <br />a. Sellick’s maneuver is not reuired<br />b. Pre-oxygenation is mandatory<br />c. Suxamethonium is contraindicated<br />d. Patient is mechanically ventilated before endotracheal intubation<br />i) Ans B<br /> <br />241. A 5 year old boy suffering from Duchenne muscular dystrophy has to undergo tendon lengthening procedureThe most appropriate anaesthetic would be: <br />a. Induction with intravenous thiopentone and N2O & halothane for maintenance<br />b. Induction with intravenous propofol and N2O & oxygen for maintenance<br />c. Induction with intravenous suxamethonium and N2O & halothane for maintenance<br />d. Inhalation induction with inhalation halothane and N2O & oxygen for maintenance<br />i) Ans B<br /> <br />242. A 25 year old male is undergoing incision and drainage of abscess under general Anaesthesia with spontaneous respirationThe most efficient anaesthetic circuit is: <br />a. Mapleson A <br />b. Mapleson B <br />c. Mapleson C <br />d. Mapleson D <br />i) Ans A<br /> <br />243. In all the following conditions neuraxial blockade is absolutely contraindicated, except: <br />a. Patient refusal<br />b. Coagulopathy<br />c. Severe hypovolemia<br />d. Pre-existing neurological deficits<br />i) Ans D<br /> <br />244. Interscalene approach to brachial plexus block does not provide surgical Anaesthesia in the area of distribution of which of the following nerve: <br />a. Musculocutaneous<br />b. Ulnar<br />c. Radial<br />d. Median<br />i) Ans B<br /> <br />245. At the end of a balanced Anaesthesia techniue with non-depolarizing muscle relaxant, a patient recovered spontaneously from the effect of muscle relaxant without any reversalWhich is the most probable relaxant the patient had received? <br />a. Pancuronium <br />b. Gallamine <br />c. Atracuronium <br />d. Vecuronium <br />i) Ans C<br /> <br />246. A 64 year old hypertensive obese female was undergoing Surgery for FRACTURE femur under general Anaesthesia Intra-operatively her end tidal carbon dioxide decreased to 20 from 40 mm Hg, followed by hypotension and oxygen saturation of 85%What would be the most probable cause: <br />a. Fat embolism <br />b. Hypovolemia <br />c. Bronchospasm <br />d. Myocardial infarction <br />i) Ans A <br /><br />247. One unit of fresh blood raises the Hb% concentration by: <br />a. gm% <br />b. gm% <br />c. gm% <br />d. 2.2 gm% <br />i) Ans B<br /> <br />248. A 50 kgman with severe metabolic acidosis has the following parameters: pH 7.05, pCO2 12 mmHg, pO2 108 mmHg, HCO3 5 mE/L, base excess -30 mE/LThe approximate uantity of sodium bicarbonate that he should receive in half hour is: <br />a. 250 mE<br />b. 350 mE<br />c. 500 mE<br />d. 750 mE<br />i) Ans A<br /> <br />249. The induction agent of choice in day care Anaesthesia is: <br />a. Sevoflurane<br />b. Ketamine<br />c. Propofol<br />d. Methohexitone<br />i) Ans C<br /> <br />250. A 38 year old man is posted for extraction of last molar tooth under general Anaesthesia as a day care caseHe wishes to resume his work after 6 hoursWhich one of the following induction agents is preferred: <br />a. Thiopentone sodium<br />b. Ketamine<br />c. Diazepam<br />d. Propofol<br />i) Ans D<br /> <br />251. During cardiopulmonary resuscitation, intravenous calcium gluconate is indicated under all of the following circumstances, except: <br />a. After 1 minof arrest routinely<br />b. Hypocalcemia<br />c. Calcium channel blocker toxicity<br />d. Electromechanical dissociation<br />i) Ans A<br /> <br />252. Induction agent that may cause adrenal cortex suppression is: <br />a. Ketamine<br />b. Etomidate<br />c. Propofol<br />d. Thiopentone<br />i) Ans B<br /> <br />OBSTETRICS AND GYNAECOLOGY <br />253. A 40 year old lady delivered a full term babyOn examination of the baby, the neonatologist noted certain urogenital abnormalityHe took the following pictureThe most likely diagnosis is: <br />a. Urogenital sinus <br />b. Hypertrophied clitoris <br />c. Miocropenis <br />d. Vulval hematoma <br />i) Ans B<br /> <br />254. A 55 year old lady presenting to out patient department (OPD) with postmenopausal bleeding for 3 months has a 1 × 1 cm nodule on the anterior lip of cervixThe most appropriate investigation to be done subseuently is: <br />a. Pap smear <br />b. Punch biopsy <br />c. Endocervical curettage <br />d. Colposcopy <br />i) Ans B<br /> <br />255. A hemodynamically stable nulliparous patient with ectopic pregnancy has adnexal mass of 2.5 × 3 cms and beta hCG titre of 1500 miu/mlWhat modality of treatment is suitable for her: <br />a. Conservative management <br />b. Medical management <br />c. Laparoscopic Surgery <br />d. Laparotomy <br />i) Ans B<br /> <br />256. A case of gestational trophoblastic neoplasia belongs to high risk group if disease develop after: <br />a. Hydatidiform mole <br />b. Full term pregnancy <br />c. Spontaneous abortion <br />d. Ectopic pregnancy <br />i) Ans B<div class="blogger-post-footer"><img width='1' height='1' src='https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/tracker/2608962106724577004-5322235239581301021?l=hi5times.blogspot.com' alt='' /></div>ckanthnoreply@blogger.com0tag:blogger.com,1999:blog-2608962106724577004.post-39845938431837386162010-02-08T21:29:00.000-08:002010-02-08T21:36:59.886-08:00ANATOMY <br />1. The commonest variation in the arteries arising from the arch of aorta is: <br />a. Absence of brachiocephalic trunk. <br />b. Left vertebral artery arising from the arch. <br />c. Left common carotid artery arising from brachiocephalic trunk. <br />d. Presence of retroesophageal subclavian artery. <br />i) Ans. C <br /><br />2. The blood vessel related to the paraduodenal fossa is: <br />a. Gonadal vein <br />b. Superior mesenteric artery <br />c. Portal vein <br />d. Inferior mesenteric vein <br />i) Ans. D <br /><br />3. The nerve commonly damaged during McBurney’s incision is: <br />a. Subcostal <br />b. Iliohypogastric <br />c. 11th thoracic <br />d. 10th thoracic <br />i) Ans. B <br /><br />4. The lumbar region of the vertebral column permits all the following movements, except: <br />a. Flexion <br />b. Extension <br />c. Lateral flexion <br />d. Rotation <br />i) Ans. D<br /><br />5. All of the following are examples of traction epiphysis, except: <br />a. Mastoid process <br />b. Tubercles of humerus <br />c. Trochanter of femur <br />d. Condyles of tibia <br />i) Ans. D <br /><br />6. All of the following statements are true for metaphysis of bone, except: <br />a. It is the strongest part of the bone. <br />b. It is the most vascular part of bone. <br />c. Growth activity is maximized here. <br />d. It is the region favouring hematogenous spread of infection. <br />i) Ans. A <br /><br />7. All of the following features can be observed after the injury to axillary nerve, except: <br />a. Loss of rounded contour of shoulder. <br />b. Loss of sensation along lateral side of upper arm. <br />c. Loss of overhead abduction. <br />d. Atrophy of deltoid muscle. <br />i) Ans. C <br /><br />8. All of the following muscles are grouped together as ‘muscles of mastication’, except: <br />a. Buccinator <br />b. Masseter <br />c. Temporalis <br />d. Pterygoids <br />i) Ans. A<br /><br />9. Referred pain from ureteric colic is felt in the groin due to involvement of the following nerve: <br />a. Subcostal <br />b. Iliohypogastric <br />c. Ilioinguinal <br />d. Genitofemoral <br />i) Ans. D<br /><br />10. The right coronary artery supplies all of the following parts of the conducting system in the heart, except: <br />a. SA Node <br />b. AV Node <br />c. AV Bundle <br />d. Right bundle branch <br />i) Ans. D <br /><br />11. The cells belonging to the following type of epithelium are provided with extra reserve of cell membrane: <br />a. Transitional <br />b. Stratified suamous <br />c. Stratified cuboidal <br />d. Stratified columnar <br />i) Ans. A<br /><br />12. Injury to radial nerve in lower part of spiral groove: <br />a. Spares nerve supply to extensor carpi radialis longus <br />b. Results in paralysis of anconeus muscle <br />c. Leaves extension at elbow joint intact <br />d. Weakens pronation movement <br />i) Ans. C<br /><br />13. A 30 year old man came to the outpatient department because he had suddenly developed double vision. On examination it was found that his right eye, when at rest, was turned medially. The most likely anatomical structures involved are: <br />a. Medial rectus and superior division of oculomotor nerve <br />b. Inferior obliue and inferior division of oculomotor nerve <br />c. Lateral rectus and abducent nerve <br />d. Superior rectus and trochlear nerve <br />i) Ans. C <br /><br />14. In a patient with a tumour in superior mediastinum compressing the superior vena cava, all the following veins would serve as alternate pathways for the blood to return to the right atrium, except: <br />a. Lateral thoracic vein <br />b. Internal thoracic vein <br />c. Hemiazygos vein <br />d. Vertebral venous plexus <br />i) Ans. B<br /><br />15. The middle cardiac vein is located at the: <br />a. Anterior interventricular sulcus. <br />b. Posterior interventricular sulcus. <br />c. Posterior AV groove. <br />d. Anterior AV groove. <br />i) Ans. B<br /><br />16. Which of the following statements is true about the autonomic nervous system? <br />a. The sympathetic outflow from the CNS is through both the cranial nerves and the sympathetic chain. <br />b. The parasympathetic outflow from the CNS is through cranial nerves only. <br />c. The superior hypogastric plexus is located at the anterior aspect of the aortic bifurcation and fifth lumbar vertebra. <br />d. The superior hypogastric plexus contains sympathetic fibers only. <br />i) Ans. C <br /><br />PHYSIOLOGY <br /><br />17. An increase in which of the following parameters will shift the O2 dissociation curve to the left: <br />a. Temperature <br />b. Partial pressure of CO2 <br />c. 2,3 DPG concentration <br />d. Oxygen affinity of haemoglobin <br />i) Ans. D<br /><br />18. A lesion of ventrolateral part of spinal cord will lead to loss (below the level of lesion) of: <br />a. Pain sensation on the ipsilateral side <br />b. Proprioception on the contralateral side <br />c. Pain sensation on the contralateral side <br />d. Proprioception on the ipsilateral side <br />i) Ans. C <br /><br />19. Two students, Vineet and Kamlesh were asked to demonstrate in dogs the role of sinus nerve in hypovolemic shock.Vineet severed the sinus nerve when the mean blood pressure (MBP) was 85 mm Hg and Kamlesh cut the sinus nerve when the mean blood pressure was 60 mm Hg. On cutting the sinus nerve: <br />a. Vineet recorded an increase in MBP but Kamlesh recorded a decrease in MBP. <br />b. Vineet recorded a decrease in MBP but Kamlesh recorded an increase in MBP. <br />c. Both recorded an increase in MBP. <br />d. Both recorded a decrease in MBP. <br />i) Ans. A <br /><br />20. As a part of space-research program, a physiologist was asked to investigate the effect of flight-induced stress on blood pressure. Accordingly the blood pressure of the cosmonauts were to be measured twice: once before the take-off, and once after the spacecraft entered the designated orbit around the earth. For a proper comparison, the preflight blood pressure should be recorded in: <br />a. The lying down position. <br />b. The sitting position. <br />c. The standing position <br />d. Any position, as long as the post-flight recording is made in the same position. <br />i) Ans. A <br /><br />21. The renal plasma flow (RPF) of a patient was to be estimated through the measurement of Para Amino Hippuric acid (PAH) clearance. The technician observed the procedure correctly but due to an error in the weighing inadvertently used thrice the recommended dose of PAH. The RPF estimated is likely to be: <br />a. False-high <br />b. False-low <br />c. False-high or false-low depending on the GFR. <br />d. Correct and is unaffected by the PAG overdose. <br />i) Ans. B <br /><br />22. The EEG record shown below is normally recordable during which stage of sleep ? <br />a. Stage I. <br />b. Stage II. <br />c. Stage III. <br />d. Stage IV. <br />i) Ans. B <br /><br />23. Figure below represents the pH of the digestive juice aspirated from the alimentary tract as a function of position along the alimentary tract during digestion of a meal: <br /><br />a. A typical value for Y2 is 9.0. <br />b. A typical value for Y3 is 10.0. <br />c. The segment C represents the pylorus. <br />d. The digestive enzymes active in segment A are inactivated in segment B. <br />i) Ans. D <br /><br />24. Which of the following statements is true for excitatory postsynaptic potentials (EPSP): <br />a. Are self propagating. <br />b. Show all or none response. <br />c. Are proportional to the amount of transmitter released by the presynaptic neuron. <br />d. Are inhibitory at presynaptic terminal. <br />i) Ans. C <br /><br />25. Synaptic conduction is mostly orthodromic because: <br />a. Dendrites cannot be depolarized. <br />b. Once repolarized, an area cannot be depolarized. <br />c. The strength of antidromic impulse is less. <br />d. Chemical mediator is located only in the presynaptic terminal. <br />i) Ans. D <br /><br />26. The cell junctions allowing exchange of cytoplasmic molecules between the two cells are called: <br />a. Gap junctions. <br />b. Tight junctions. <br />c. Anchoring junctions <br />d. Focal junctions. <br />i) Ans. A <br /><br />BIOCHEMISTRY <br /><br />27. The main enzyme responsible for activation of xenobiotics is: <br />a. Cytochrome P-450 <br />b. Glutathione S-transferase <br />c. NADPH cytochrome P-450-reductase <br />d. Glucoronyl transferase <br />i) Ans. A <br /><br />28. The primary defect which leads to sickle cell anemia is: <br />a. An abnormality in prophyrin part of hemo-globin. <br />b. -chain ofB. Replacement of glutamate by valine in HbA. <br />c. -chain of HbA.C. A nonsense mutation in the <br />d. Substitution of -chain of HbA.valine by glutanmate in the <br />i) Ans. B <br /><br />29. Decreased glycolytic activity impairs oxygen transport by hemoglobin due to: <br />a. Reduced energy production <br />b. Decreased production of 2,3-biphospho-glycerate <br />c. Reduced synthesis of hemoglobin <br />d. Low level of oxygen <br />i) Ans. B <br /><br />30. The primary role of chaperones is to help in: <br />a. Protein synthesis <br />b. Protein degradation <br />c. Protein denaturation <br />d. Protein folding <br />i) Ans. D <br /><br />31. The conversion of an optically pure isomer (enantiomer) into a mixture of eual amounts of both dextro and levo form is called as: <br />a. Polymerization <br />b. Stereoisomerization <br />c. Racemization <br />d. Fractionation <br />i) Ans. C <br /><br />32. The protein rich in basic amino acids, which functions in the packaging of DNA in chromosomes, is: <br />a. Histone <br />b. Collagen <br />c. Hyaluronic acid binding protein <br />d. Fibrinogen <br />i) Ans. A <br /><br />33. An enzyme involved in the catabolism of fructose to pyruvate in the liver is: <br />a. Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate dehydrogenase <br />b. Phosphoglucomutase <br />c. Lactate dehydrogenase <br />d. Glucokinase <br />i) Ans. A <br /><br />34. -oxidation of odd-chain fatty acids produces:<br />a. Succinyl CoA <br />b. Propionyl CoA <br />c. Acetyl CoA <br />d. Malonyl CoA <br />i) Ans. B <br /><br />35. The buffering capacity of a buffer is maximum at pH eual to: <br />a. 0.5 pKa <br />b. pKa <br />c. pKa+1 <br />d. 2pKa <br />i) Ans. B <br /><br />36. Which of the following is present intracellulary in muscle cells: <br />a. Insulin <br />b. Corticosteroid <br />c. Epinephrine <br />d. Glucagon <br />i) Ans. B <br /><br />37. Which of the following is not a post transcriptional modification of RNA? <br />a. Splicing <br />b. 5 capping <br />c. polyadenylation C. 3 <br />d. Glycosylation <br />i) Ans. D <br /><br />38. Serum total lactate dehydrogenase level will NOT be raised in: <br />a. Muscle crush injury <br />b. Stroke <br />c. Myocardial infarction <br />d. Hemolysis <br />i) Ans. B <br /><br />39. Porphobilinogen in urine produces pink colour with: <br />a. Fouchet’s reagent. <br />b. Benedict’s reagent. <br />c. Sodium nitropruside. <br />d. Ehrlich’s aldehyde reagent. <br />i) Ans. D <br /><br />40. The collagen triple helix structure is not found in: <br />a. Cytoplasm. <br />b. Golgi apparatus. <br />c. Lumen of endoplasmic reticulum. <br />d. Intracellular vesicles. <br />i) Ans. A <br /><br />MICROBIOLOGY AND PARASITALOGY<br /><br />41. An anxious mother brought her 4 year old daughter to the pediatrician. The girl was passing loose bulky stools for the past 20 days. This was often associated with pain in abdomen. The pediatrician ordered the stool examination which showed the following organisms. Identify the organism: <br />a. Entamoeba histolytica <br />b. Giardia lamblia <br />c. Cryptosporidium <br />d. E. coli <br />i) Ans. B <br /><br />42. Heat labile instruments for use in surgical procedures can be best sterilized by: <br />a. Absolute alcohol <br />b. Ultra violet rays <br />c. Chlorine releasing compounds <br />d. Ethylene oxide gas <br />i) Ans. D <br /><br />43. Thirty-eight children consumed eatables procured from a picnic party. Twenty children developed abdominal cramps followed by vomiting and watery diarrhoea 6-10 hours after the party. The most likely etiology for the outbreak is: <br />a. Rotavirus infection <br />b. Entero-toxigenic E. coli infection <br />c. Staphylococcol toxin <br />d. Clostridium perfringens infection <br />i) Ans. C <br /><br />44. The following are true for Bordetella pertussis except: <br />a. It is a strict human pathogen. <br />b. It can be cultured from the patient during catarrhal stage. <br />c. It leads to invasion of the respiratory mucosa. <br />d. Infection can be prevented by a acellular vaccine. <br />i) Ans. C<br /><br />45. A chest physician performs bronchoscopy in the procedure room of the out patient department. To make the instrument safe for use in the next patient waiting outside, the most appropriate method to disinfect the endoscope is by: <br />a. 70% alcohol for 5 min. <br />b. 2% gluteraldelyde for 20 min. <br />c. 2% formaldehyde for 10 min. <br />d. 1% sodium hypochlorite for 15 min. <br />i) Ans. B <br /><br />46. Which of the following statements is true about rabies virus: <br />a. It is a double stranded RNA virus. <br />b. Contains a DNA-dependent RNA polymerase. <br />c. RNA has a negative polarity <br />d. Affects motor neurons. <br />i) Ans. C<br /><br />47. Which of the following statements is true about endemic typhus: <br />a. Is caused by R. rickettsii. <br />b. Is transmitted by the bite of fleas. <br />c. Has no mammalian reservoir. <br />d. Can be cultured in chemical defined culture medium. <br />i) Ans. B <br /><br />48. The organism most commonly causing genital filariasis in most parts of Bihar and eastern UP is: <br />a. Wuchereria bancrofti. <br />b. Brugia malayi. <br />c. Onchocerca volvulus. <br />d. Dirofilaria. <br />i) Ans. A<br /><br />PATHOLOGY<br /><br />49. A married middle aged female gives history of repeated abortions for the past 5 years. The given below is conceptions prenatal karyogram. This karyogram suggests the following: <br />a. Klinfelter’s syndrome <br />b. Turner’s syndrome <br />c. Down’s syndrome <br />d. Patau’s syndrome <br />i) Ans. C <br /><br />50. An increased incidence of cholangiocarcinoma is seen in all of the following, except: <br />a. Hydatid cyst of liver <br />b. Polycystic disease of liver <br />c. Sclerosing cholangitis <br />d. Liver flukes <br />i) Ans. A <br /><br />51. Strong correlation with colorectal cancer is seen in: <br />a. Peutz-Jeghers polyp <br />b. Familial polyposis coli <br />c. Juvenile polyposis <br />d. Hyperplastic polyp <br />i) Ans. B <br /><br />52. Which of the following is the most common location of hypertensive hemorrhage? <br />a. Pons. <br />b. Thalamus. <br />c. Putamen/external capsule. <br />d. Subcortical white matter. <br />i) Ans. C <br /><br />53. A 63-year old man presented with massive splenomegaly, lymphadenopathy and a total leucocyte count of 17000 per mm3. The flowcytometry showed CD19 positive, CD5 positive, CD23 negative, monoclonal B-cells with bright kappa positivity comprising 80% of the peripheral blood lymphoid cells. The most likely diagnosis is: <br />a. Mantle cell lymphoma. <br />b. Splenic lymphoma with villous lymphocytes. <br />c. Follicular lymphoma. <br />d. Hairy cell leukemia. <br />i) Ans. A <br /><br />54. The HLA class III region genes are important elements in: <br />a. Transplant rejection phenomenon. <br />b. Governing susceptibility to autoimmune diseases. <br />c. Immune surveillance. <br />d. Antigen presentation and elimination. <br />i) Ans. C<br /><br />55. All the statements about lactoferrin are true, except: <br />a. It is present in secondary granules of neutrophil. <br />b. It is present in exocrine secretions of body. <br />c. It has great affinity for iron. <br />d. It transports iron for erythropoiesis. <br />i) Ans. D <br /><br />56. Which of the following procedures are used as routine techniue for karyotyping using light microscopy? <br />a. C-banding <br />b. G- banding <br />c. -banding <br />d. Brd V-banding <br />i) Ans. B <br /><br />57. Restriction fragment length polymorphism is used for: <br />a. Analysis of chromosome structure. <br />b. DNA estimation. <br />c. Synthesis of nucleic acid. <br />d. Detecting proteins in a cell. <br />i) Ans. A <br /><br />PHARMACOLOGY <br />58. Granulocytopenia, gingival hyperplasia and facial hirsutism are all possible side effects of one of the following anticonvulsant drugs: <br />a. Phenytoin <br />b. Valproate <br />c. Carbamazepine <br />d. Phenobarbitone <br />i) Ans. A <br /><br />59. Bacitracin acts on: <br />a. Cell wall <br />b. Cell membrane <br />c. Nucleic acid <br />d. Ribosomes <br />i) Ans. A <br /><br />60. All of the following drugs act on cell membrane, except: <br />a. Nystatin <br />b. Griseofulvin <br />c. Amphotericin B <br />d. Polymixin B <br />i) Ans. B<br /><br />61. All of the following statements regarding bioavailability of a drug are true except: <br />a. It is the proportion (fraction) of unchanged drug that reaches the systemic circulation. <br />b. Bioavailability of an orally administered drug can be calculated by comparing ) after oral and intravenous (IV) administration. the area under curve (O- <br />c. Low oral bioavailability always and necessarily mean poor absorption. <br />d. Bioavailability can be determined from plasma concentration or urinary excretion data. <br />i) Ans. C<br /><br />62. The extent to which ionization of a drug takes place is dependent upon pKa of the drug and the pH of the solution in which the drug is dissolved. Which of the following statements is not correct: <br />a. pKa of a drug is the pH at which the drug is 50% ionized. <br />b. Small changes of pH near the pKa of a weak acidic drug will not affect its degree of ionization. <br />c. Knowledge of pKa of a drug is useful in predicting its behaviour in various body fluids. <br />d. Phenobarbitone with a pKa of 7.2 is largely ionized at acid pH and will be about 40% non-ionised in plasma. <br />i) Ans. B <br /><br />63. Presence of food might be expected to interfere with drug absorption by slowing gastric emptying, or by altering the degree of ionisation of the drug in the stomach. Which of the following statement is not correct example: <br />a. Absorption of digoxin is delayed by the presence of food. <br />b. Concurrent food intake may severely reduce the rate of absorption of phenytoin. <br />c. Presence of food enhances the absorption of hydrochlorothiazide. <br />d. Antimalarial drug halofantrine is more extensively absorbed if taken with food. <br />i) Ans. B <br /><br />64. Bosentan is a: <br />a. Serotonin uptake inhibitor. <br />b. Endothelin receptor antagonist. <br />c. Leukotriene modifier. <br />d. Calcium sensitizer. <br />i) Ans. B <br /><br />FORENSIC MEDICINE <br />65. Mummification refers to: <br />a. Hardening of muscles after death <br />b. Colliuative putrification <br />c. Saponification of subcutaneous fat <br />d. Dessication of a dead body <br />i) Ans. D <br /><br />66. A patient has been allegedly bitten by cobra snake. The venom in such a bite would be: <br />a. Musculotoxic <br />b. Vasculotoxic <br />c. Cardiotoxic <br />d. Neurotoxic <br />i) Ans. D<br /><br />67. All the following are related to legal responsibility of an insane person except: <br />a. Mc Naughten’s rule <br />b. Durham’s rule <br />c. Curren’s rule <br />d. Rule of nine <br />i) Ans. D <br /><br />68. In a suspected case of death due to poisoning where cadaveric rigidity is lasting longer than usual, it may be a case of poisoning due to: <br />a. Lead <br />b. Arsenic <br />c. Mercury <br />d. Copper <br />i) Ans. B <br /><br />69. Blackening and tattooing of skin and clothing can be best demonstrated by: <br />a. Luminol spray. <br />b. Infrared photography. <br />c. Ultraviolet light. <br />d. Magnifying lens. <br />i) Ans. B<br /><br />70. Postmortem lividity is unlikely to develop in a case of: <br />a. Drowning in well. <br />b. Drowning in a fast flowing river. <br />c. Postmortem submersion. <br />d. Drowning in chlorinated swimming pool. <br />i) Ans. B<br /><br />71. The following situations are associated with rise of temperature after death except : <br />a. Burns. <br />b. Heat stroke. <br />c. Pontine hemorrhage. <br />d. Septicemia. <br />i) Ans. A<br /><br />72. In prenatal diagnostic techniue Act 1994 which one of the following is not a ground for carrying out prenatal test ? <br />a. Pregnant women above 35 years of age. <br />b. History of two or more spontaneous abortion or fetal loss. <br />c. When fetal heart rate is 160 per min at fifth and 120 per min at ninth month. <br />d. History of exposure to potentially teratogenic drugs. <br />i) Ans. C <br /><br />73. Perjury means giving willful false evidence by a witness while under oath, the witness is liable to be prosecuted for perjury and the imprisonment may extend to seven years. This falls under which section of IPC? <br />a. 190 of Indian Penal Code. <br />b. 191 of Indian Penal Code. <br />c. 192 of Indian Penal Code <br />d. 193 of Indian Penal code. <br />i) Ans. D <br /><br />74. The most reliable criteria in Gustafson’s method of identification is: <br />a. Cementum apposition. <br />b. Transparency of root. <br />c. Attrition. <br />d. Root resorption. <br />i) Ans. B <br /><br />PREVENTIVE AND SOCIAL MEDICINE <br />75. The parameters of sensitivity and specificity are used for assessing: <br />a. Criterion validity <br />b. Construct validity <br />c. Discriminant validity <br />d. Content validity <br />i) Ans. A <br /><br />76. Chi-suare test is used to measure the degree of: <br />a. Causal relationship between exposure and effect. <br />b. Association between two variables. <br />c. Correlation between two variables. <br />d. Agreement between two observations. <br />i) Ans. B <br /><br />77. Elements of primary health care include all of the following except: <br />a. Adeuate supply of safe water and basic sanitation. <br />b. Providing essential drugs. <br />c. Sound referral system. <br />d. Health education. <br />i) Ans. C <br /><br />78. For the calculation of positive predictive value of a screening test, the denominator is comprised of: <br />a. True positive + False negative <br />b. False positive + True negative <br />c. True positive + False positive <br />d. True positive + True negative <br />i) Ans. C <br /><br />79. Elemental iron and folic acid contents of pediatric iron-folic acid tablets supplied under Rural Child Health (RCH) program are: <br />a. 20 mg iron & 100 micrograms folic acid. <br />b. 40 mg iron & 100 micrograms folic acid. <br />c. 40 mg iron & 50 micrograms folic acid. <br />d. 60 mg iron & 100 micrograms folic acid. <br />i) Ans. A <br /><br />80. In the management of leprosy, lepromin test is most useful for: <br />a. Herd immunity <br />b. Prognosis <br />c. Treatment <br />d. Epidemiological investigations <br />i) Ans. B<br /><br />81. A measure of location which divides the distribution in the ratio of 3:1 is: <br />a. Median <br />b. First uartile <br />c. Third uartile <br />d. Mode <br />i) Ans. C<br /><br />82. The following statements about meningococcal meningitis are true, except: <br />a. The source of infection is mainly clinical cases. <br />b. The disease is more common in dry and cold months of the year. <br />c. Chemoprophylaxis of close contacts of cases is recommended. <br />d. The vaccine is not effective in children below 2 years of age. <br />i) Ans. A <br /><br />83. The Protein Efficiency Ratio (PER) is defined as: <br />a. The gain in weight of young animals per unit weight of protein-consumed. <br />b. The product of digestibility coeffecient and biological value. <br />c. The percentage of protein absorbed into the blood. <br />d. The percentage of nitrogen absorbed from the protein absorbed from the diet. <br />i) Ans. A<br /><br />84. The Vitamin A supplement administered in "Prevention of nutritional blindness in children programme" contain: <br />a. 25,000 i.u./ml <br />b. 1 lakh i.u./ml <br />c. 3 lakh i.u./ml <br />d. 5 lakh i.u./ml <br />i) Ans. B<br /><br />85. A 5 year old boy passed 18 loose stools in last 24 hours and vomited twice in last 4 hours. He is irritable but drinking fluids. The optimal therapy for this child is: <br />a. Intravenous fluids <br />b. Oral rehydration therapy <br />c. Intravenous fluid initially for 4 hours followed by oral fluids. <br />d. Plain water add libitum. <br />i) Ans. B<br /><br />86. Study this formula carefully: <br />This denotes: <br />a. Sensitivity. <br />b. Specificity. <br />c. Positive Predictive value. <br />d. Negative Predictive value. <br />i) Ans. A <br /><br />87. The ‘P’ value of a randomized controlled trial comparing operation A (new procedure) and operation B (Gold standard is 0.04). From this, we conclude that: <br />a. Type II error is small and we can accept the findings of the study. <br />b. The probability of false negative conclusion that operation A is better than operation B, when in truth it is not, is 4%. <br />c. The power of study to detect a difference between operation A and B is 96%. <br />d. The probability of a false positive conclusion that operation A is better than operation B, when in truth it is not, is 4%. <br />i) Ans. D <br /><br />88. The commonest cause of low vision in India is: <br />a. Uncorrected refractive error <br />b. Cataract. <br />c. Glaucoma <br />d. Suint. <br />i) Ans. A <br /><br />89. Most important epidemiological tool used for assessing disability in children is: <br />a. Activities of Daily Living (ADL) scale. <br />b. Wing’s Handicaps, Behaviour and Skills (HBS) Schedule. <br />c. Binet and Simon I tests. <br />d. Physical uality of Life Index (PLI). <br />i) Ans. B<br /><br />90. Scope of family planning services include all of the following except: <br />a. Screening for cervical cancer. <br />b. Providing services for unmarried mothers. <br />c. Screening for HIV infection. <br />d. Providing adoption services. <br />i) Ans. C<br /><br />91. Class II exposure in animal bites includes the following: <br />a. Scratches without oozing of blood. <br />b. Licks on a fresh wound. <br />c. Scratch with oozing of blood on palm. <br />d. Bites from wild animals. <br />i) Ans. B <br /><br />92. Elemental iron and folic acid contents of iron and folic acid adult tablets supplied under the "National Programme for Anaemia Prophylaxis" are: <br />a. 60 mg of elemental iron and 250 microgram of folic acid. <br />b. 100 mg of elemental iron and 500 micrograms of folic acid. <br />c. 20 mg of elemental iron and 750 micrograms of folic acid. <br />d. 200 mg of elemental iron and 1000 micro-grams of folic acid. <br />i) Ans. B<br /><br />93. Denominator while calculating the secondary attack rate includes: <br />a. All the people living in next fifty houses. <br />b. All the close contacts. <br />c. All susceptibles amongst close contact. <br />d. All susceptibles in the whole village. <br />i) Ans. C <br /><br />94. The response which is graded by an observer on an agree or disagree continuum is based on: <br />a. Visual analog scale. <br />b. Guttman scale. <br />c. Likert scale. <br />d. Adjectival scale. <br />i) Ans. C <br /><br />95. For calculation of sample size for a prevalence study all of the following are necessary except: <br />a. Prevalence of disease in population. <br />b. Power of the study. <br />c. Significance level. <br />d. Desired precision. <br />i) Ans. D <br /><br />96. Leprosy is considered a public health problem if the prevalence of leprosy is more than: <br />a. 1 per 10,000 <br />b. 2 per 10,000 <br />c. 5 per 10,000 <br />d. 10 per 10,000 <br />i) Ans. A<br /><br />97. For controlling an outbreak of cholera, all of the following measures are recommended except: <br />a. Mass chemoprophylaxis. <br />b. Proper disposal of excreta. <br />c. Chlorination of water. <br />d. Early detection and management of cases. <br />e. Ans. A<br /><br />98. A child aged 24 months was brought to the Primary Health Centre with complaints of cough and fever for the past 2 days. On examination, the child weighed 11 kg., respiratory rate was 38 per minute, chest indrawing was present. The most appropriate line of management for this patient is? <br />a. Classify as pneumonia and refer urgently to secondary level hospital. <br />b. Classify as pneumonia, start antibiotics and advise to report after 2 days. <br />c. Classify as severe pneumonia, start antibiotics and refer urgently. <br />d. Classify as severe pneumonia and refer urgently. <br />e. Ans. C<br /><br />MEDICINE<br />99. The syndromic management of urethral discharge includes treatment of: <br />a. Neisseria gonorrhoeae and herpes genitalis. <br />b. Chlamydia trachomatis and herpes genitalis. <br />c. Neisseria gonorrhoeae and Chlamydia trachomatis. <br />d. Syphilis and chancroid. <br />i) Ans. C<br /><br />100. A 56 year old man presents in the casualty with severe chest pain and difficulty in breathing. His ECG was taken immediately. The above ECG suggest the following diagnosis: <br />a. Ventricular fibrillation <br />b. Acute pulmonary embolism <br />c. Second degree heart block <br />d. Atrial fibrillation <br />i) Ans. B <br /><br />101. All of the following infections are often associated with acute intravascular hemolysis except: <br />a. Clostridium tetani <br />b. Bartonella bacilliformis <br />c. Plasmodium falciparum <br />d. Babesia microti <br />i) Ans. A <br /><br />102. All of the following are the electrocardiographic features of severe hyperkalemia except: <br />a. Peaked T waves <br />b. Presence of U waves <br />c. Sine wave pattern <br />d. Loss of P waves <br />i) Ans. B<br /><br />103. The correct seuence of cell cycle is: <br />a. G0 - G1 - S - G2 - M <br />b. G0 - G1 - G2 - S - M <br />c. G0 - M - G2 - S - G1 <br />d. G0 - G1 - S - M - G2 <br />i) Ans. A <br /><br />104. Commonest cause of sporadic encephalitis is: <br />a. Japanese B Virus <br />b. Herpes Simplex Virus <br />c. Human Immunodeficiency Virus <br />d. Rubeola Virus <br />i) Ans. B<br /><br />105. Raised serum level of lipoprotein - (a) is a predictor of: <br />a. Cirrhosis of liver <br />b. Rheumatic arthritis <br />c. Atherosclerosis <br />d. Cervical cancer <br />i) Ans. C<br /><br />106. Haemorrhage secondary to heparin administration can be best corrected by administration of: <br />a. Vitamin K <br />b. Whole blood <br />c. Protamine <br />d. Ascorbic acid <br />i) Ans. C <br /><br />107. Which one of the following conditions may lead to exudative pleural effusion: <br />a. Cirrhosis <br />b. Nephrotic syndrome <br />c. Congestive heart failure <br />d. Bronchogenic carcinoma <br />i) Ans. D <br /><br />108. A 60 year old man is diagnosed to be suffering from Legionnaire’s disease after he returns home from attending a convention. He could have acuired it: <br />a. From a person suffering from the infection while travelling in the aeroplane. <br />b. From a chronic carrier in the convention center. <br />c. From inhalation of the aerosol in the air-conditioned room at convention center. <br />d. By sharing an infected towel with a fellow delegate at the convention. <br />i) Ans. C<br /><br />109. In a post-operative intensive care unit, five patients developed post-operative wound infection on the same day. The best method to prevent cross infection occurring in other patients in the same ward is to: <br />a. Give antibiotics to all other patients in the ward. <br />b. Fumigate the ward. <br />c. Disinfect the ward with sodium hypochlorite. <br />d. Practice proper hand washing. <br />i) Ans. D<br /><br />110. The earliest immunoglobulin to be synthesized by the fetus is: <br />a. IgA <br />b. IgG <br />c. IgE <br />d. IgM <br />i) Ans. D<br /><br />111. The following are true regarding Lyme’s disease, except: <br />a. It is transmitted by Ixodes tick. <br />b. Erythema chronicum migrans may be a clinical feature. <br />c. Borrelia recurrentis is the aetiological agent. <br />d. Rodents act as natural hosts. <br />i) Ans. C<br /><br />112. A couple, with a family history of beta thalassemia major in a distant relative, has come for counselling. The husband has HbA2 of 4.8% and the wife has HbA2 of 2.3%. The risk of having a child with beta thalassemia major is: <br />a. 50% <br />b. 25% <br />c. 5% <br />d. 0% <br />i) Ans. D<br /><br />113. A 2 month old baby with acute icteric viral hepatitis like illness slips into encephalopathy after 48 hours. The mother is a known hepatitis B carrier. Mother’s hepatitis B virus serological profile is most likely to be: <br />a. HBsAg positive only <br />b. HBsAg and HBeAg positive <br />c. HBsAg and HBe antibody positive <br />d. HBV DNA positive <br />i) Ans. C<br /><br />114. A 7 year old girl from Bihar presented with three episodes of massive hematemesis and melena. There is no history of jaundice. On examination, she had a large spleen, non-palpable liver and mild ascites. Portal vein was not visualised on ultrasonography. Liver function tests were normal and endoscopy revealed esophageal varices. The most likely diagnosis is: <br />a. Kala azar with portal hypertension <br />b. Portal hypertension of unknown etiology <br />c. Chronic liver disease with portal hypertension <br />d. Portal hypertension due to extrahepatic obstruction. <br />i) Ans. D<br /><br />115. A 40 year old male had undergone splenectomy 20 years ago. Peripheral blood smear examination would show the presence of: <br />a. Dohle bodies <br />b. Hypersegmented neutrophils <br />c. Spherocytes <br />d. Howell-Jolly bodies <br />i) Ans. D<br /><br />116. Which of the heart valve is most likely to be involved by infective endocarditis following a septic abortion? <br />a. Aortic valve <br />b. Tricuspid valve <br />c. Pulmonary valve <br />d. Mitral valve <br />i) Ans. B <br /><br />117. Central nervous system manifestations in chronic renal failure are a result of all of the following, except: <br />a. Hyperosmolarity <br />b. Hypocalcemia <br />c. Acidosis <br />d. Hyponatremia <br />e. Ans. A<br /><br />118. Medullary carcinoma of the thyroid is associated with which of the following syndrome: <br />a. MEN I <br />b. MEN II <br />c. Fraumeni syndrome <br />d. Hashimoto’s syndrome <br />i) Ans. B<br /><br />119. Which of the following statements represent most correct interpretation from the ECG waveform given below: <br />a. X-originated from an atrial ectopic focus. <br />b. X reset the cardiac rhythm. <br />c. Both heart sounds would have been present at X beat. <br />d. The path of spread of excitation was normal. <br />i) Ans. B<br /><br />120. A 60 year old male presented to the emergency with breathlessness, facial swelling and dilated veins on the chest wall. The most common cause is: <br />a. Thymoma. <br />b. Lung cancer. <br />c. Hodgkin’s lymphoma. <br />d. Superior vena caval obstruction. <br />i) Ans. B<br /><br />121. All of the following conditions may predispose to pulmonary embolism except: <br />a. Protein S deficiency. <br />b. Malignancy. <br />c. Obesity. <br />d. Progesterone therapy. <br />i) Ans. D<br /><br />122. An early systolic murmur may be caused by all of the following except: <br />a. Small ventricular septal defect. <br />b. Papillary muscle dysfunction. <br />c. Tricuspid regurgitation. <br />d. Aortic stenosis. <br />i) Ans. D<br /><br />123. Troponin-T is preferable to CPK-MB in the diagnosis of acute myocardial infarction (MI) in all of the following situations except: <br />a. Bedside diagnosis of MI. <br />b. Postoperatively (after CABG). <br />c. Reinfarction after 4 days. <br />d. Small infarcts. <br />i) Ans. C<br /><br />124. The most common cause of tricuspid regurgitation is secondary to: <br />a. Rheumatic heart disease. <br />b. Dilatation of right ventricle. <br />c. Coronary artery disease. <br />d. Endocarditis due to intravenous drug abuse. <br />i) Ans. B<br /><br />125. Absence seizures are characterized on EEG by: <br />a. 3 Hz spike & wave <br />b. 1-2 Hz spike & wave. <br />c. Generalized polyspikes. <br />d. Hypsarrythmia. <br />i) Ans. A <br /><br />126. All of the following are associated with low C3 levels except: <br />a. Post streptococcal glomerulonephritis. <br />b. Membrano-proliferative glomerulonephritis. <br />c. Goodpasture’s disease. <br />d. Systemic lupus erythematosus. <br />i) Ans. C<br /><br />127. Normal anion gap metabolic acidosis is caused by: <br />a. Cholera. <br />b. Starvation. <br />c. Ethylene glycol poisoning. <br />d. Lactic acidosis. <br />i) Ans. A <br /><br />128. Diagnostic features of allergic broncho-pulmonary aspergillosis (ABPA) include all of the following except: <br />a. Changing pulmonary infiltrates. <br />b. Peripheral eosinophilia. <br />c. Serum precipitins against Aspergillous fumigatus. <br />d. Occurrence in patients with old cavitary lesions. <br />i) Ans. D <br /><br />129. The syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone is characterized by the following: <br />a. Hyponatremia and urine sodium excretion > 20 mE/l. <br />b. Hypernatremia and urine sodium excretion > 20 mE/l. <br />c. Hyponatremia and hyperkalemia. <br />d. Hypernatremia and hypokalemia. <br />i) Ans. A<br /><br />130. All of the following heart sounds occur shortly after S2 except: <br />a. Opening snap. <br />b. Pericardial knock. <br />c. Ejection click. <br />d. Tumor plop. <br />i) Ans. C<br /><br />131. Pulmonary hypertension may occur in all of the following conditions except: <br />a. Toxic oil syndrome. <br />b. Progressive systemic sclerosis. <br />c. Sickle cell anaemia. <br />d. Argemone mexicana poisoning. <br />i) Ans. D<br /><br />132. Causes of metabolic alkalosis include all the following, except: <br />a. Mineralocorticoid deficiency. <br />b. Bartter’s syndrome. <br />c. Thiazide diuretic therapy. <br />d. Recurrent vomiting. <br />i) Ans. A <br /><br />133. The most freuent cause of recurrent genital ulceration in a sexually active male is: <br />a. Herpes genitalis. <br />b. Aphthous ulcer. <br />c. Syphilis. <br />d. Chancroid. <br />i) Ans. A <br /><br />134. The most effective drug against M. leprae is: <br />a. Dapsone. <br />b. Rifampicin. <br />c. Clofazimine. <br />d. Prothionamide. <br />i) Ans. B<br /><br />135. A 30-year old HIV positive patient presents with fever, dyspnoea and non-productive cough, patient is cyanosed. His chest X-ray reveals bilateral, symmetrical interstitial infiltrates. The most likely diagnosis is: <br />a. Tuberculosis. <br />b. Cryptococcosis. <br />c. Pneunocystis carinii pneumonia. <br />d. Toxoplasmosis. <br />i) Ans. C<br /><br />136. Extensive pleural thickening and calcification especially involving the diaphragmatic pleura are classical features of: <br />a. Coal worker’s pneumoconiosis. <br />b. Asbestosis. <br />c. Silicosis. <br />d. Siderosis. <br />i) Ans. B<br /><br />137. Commonest presentation of neurocysticercosis is: <br />a. Seizures. <br />b. Focal neurological deficits. <br />c. Dementia <br />d. Radiculopathy. <br />i) Ans. A<br /><br />138. A 55-year old man who has been on bed rest for the past 10 days, complains of breathlessness and chest pain. The chest X-ray is normal. The next investigation should be: <br />a. Lung ventilation-perfusion scan. <br />b. Pulmonary arteriography. <br />c. Pulmonary venous angiography. <br />d. Echocardiography. <br />i) Ans. B<br /><br />139. A 60-year old man with diabetes mellitus presents with painless, swollen right ankle joint. Radiograph of the ankle shows destroyed joint with large number of loose bodies. The most probable diagnosis is: <br />a. Charcot’s joint <br />b. Clutton’s joint <br />c. Osteoarthritis. <br />d. Rheumatoid arthritis. <br />i) Ans. A <br /><br />140. All of the following statements regarding the ECG in acute pericarditis are true except: <br />a. T wave inversion develop before ST elevations return to baseline. <br />b. Global ST segment elevation is seen in early pericarditis. <br />c. Sinus tachycardia is a common finding. <br />d. PR segment depression is present in majority of patients. <br />i) Ans. A <br /><br />141. Type IV hypersensitivity to Mycobacterium tuberculosis antigen may manifest as: <br />a. Iridocyclitis. <br />b. Polyarteritis nodosa. <br />c. Phlyctenular conjunctivitis. <br />d. Giant cell arteritis. <br />i) Ans. C<br /><br />142. The blood gas parameters: pH 7.58, pCO2 23 mmHg, PO2 300 mmHg and oxygen saturation 60% are most consistent with: <br />a. Carbon monoxide poisoning. <br />b. Ventilatory malfunction. <br />c. Voluntary hyperventilation. <br />d. Methyl alcohol poisoning. <br />i) Ans. A <br /><br />143. Most suitable radioisotope of iodine for treating hyperthyroidism is: <br />a. I123 <br />b. I125 <br />c. I131 <br />d. I132 <br />i) Ans. C<br /><br />144. In the presence of vasopressin the greatest fraction of filtered water is reabsorbed in which part of the nephron: <br />a. Proximal tubule. <br />b. Distal tubule. <br />c. Loope of Henle. <br />d. Collecting duct. <br />i) Ans. A<br /><br />145. All of the following statements are correct about potassium balance, except: <br />a. Most of potassium is intracellular. <br />b. Three uarter of the total body potassium is found in skeletal muscle. <br />c. Intracellular potassium is released into extra-cellular space in response to severe injury. <br />d. Acidosis leads to movement of potassium from extracellular to intracellular fluid compartment. <br />i) Ans. D<br /><br />146. Hypocalcemia is characterized by all of the following features except: <br />a. Numbness and tingling of circumoral region. <br />b. Hyperactive tendon reflexes. <br />c. Shortening of -T interval in ECG. <br />d. Carpopedal spasm. <br />i) Ans. C <br /><br />147. Which of the following is not true about Berger’s disease? <br />a. The pathologic changes are proliferation and usually confined to mesangial cells; usually focal and segmental. <br />b. Hematuria may be gross or microscopic. <br />c. On immunoflurorescence deposits contain both IgA and IgG. <br />d. Absence of associated proteinuria is pathognomonic. <br />i) Ans. D<br /><br />148. All of the following are risk factors for deep vein thrombosis (DVT) except: <br />a. Duration of surgery more than thirty minutes. <br />b. Obesity. <br />c. Age less than forty years. <br />d. Use of the oestrogen-progesterone contraceptive pills. <br />i) Ans. C<br /><br />149. A labourer involved with repair-work of sewers was admitted with fever, jaundice and renal failure. The most appropriate test to diagnose the infection in this patient is: <br />a. Weil Felix test. <br />b. Paul Bunnel test. <br />c. Microscopic agglutination test. <br />d. Micro immunofluorescence test. <br />i) Ans. C<br /><br />150. Memory T cells can be identified by using the following marker: <br />a. CD45 RA. <br />b. CD45 RB. <br />c. CD45 RC. <br />d. CD45 RO. <br />i) Ans. D <br /><br />151. All of the following statements about NK cells are true, except: <br />a. They are derived from large granular cells. <br />b. They comprise about 5% of human peripheral lymphoid cells. <br />c. They are MHC restricted cytotoxic cells. <br />d. They express IgG Fc receptors. <br />i) Ans. C<br /><br />152. Which of the following increases the susceptibility to coronary artery disease: <br />a. Type V hyperlipoproteinaemia. <br />b. Von Willebrandt’s disease. <br />c. Nephrotic syndrome. <br />d. Systemic lupus erythematosus. <br />i) Ans. D<br /><br />153. MHC class III genes encode: <br />a. Complement component C3. <br />b. Tumor necrosis factor. <br />c. Interleukin 2. <br />d. Beta 2 microglobulin. <br />i) Ans. B<br /><br />154. Gluten sensitive enteropathy is most strongly associated with: <br />a. HLA-D2. <br />b. HLA-DR4. <br />c. HLA-D3. <br />d. Blood group ‘B’. <br />i) Ans. A <br /><br />155. Most sensitive and specific test for diagnosis of iron deficiency is: <br />a. Serum iron levels. <br />b. Serum ferritin levels. <br />c. Serum transferrin receptor population. <br />d. Transferrin saturation. <br />i) Ans. B<br /><br />156. All of the following are poor prognostic factors for acute myeloid leukemias, except: <br />a. Age more than 60 years. <br />b. Leucocyte count more than 1,00,000/µl. <br />c. Secondary leukemias. <br />d. Presence of t(8;21). <br />i) Ans. D<br /><br />157. Leukoerythroblastic picture may be seen in all of the following, except: <br />a. Myelofibrosis. <br />b. Metastatic carcinoma. <br />c. Gaucher’s disease. <br />d. Thalassemia. <br />i) Ans. D <br /><br />158. Cardiac or central nervous system toxicity may result when standard lidocaine doses are administered to patients with circulatory failure. This may be due to the following reason: <br />a. Lidocaine concentration are initially higher in relatively well perfused tissues such as brain and heart. <br />b. Histamine receptors in brain and heart gets suddenly activated in circulatory failure. <br />c. There is a sudden out-bursts of release of adrenaline, noradrenaline and dopamine in brain and heart. <br />d. Lidocaine is converted into a toxic metabolite due to its longer stay in liver. <br />i) Ans. A <br /><br />159. All of the following are useful intravenous therapy for hypertensive emergencies, except: <br />a. Fenoldopam. <br />b. Urapidil. <br />c. Enalapril. <br />d. Nifedipine. <br />i) Ans. D<br /><br />160. Cardiac output measured by thermodilution techniue is unreliable in all of the following situations except: <br />a. Ventricular septal defect. <br />b. Tricuspid regurgitation. <br />c. Low cardiac output. <br />d. Pulmonary regurgitation. <br />i) Ans. A<br /><br />161. Exercise testing is absolutely contraindi-cated in which one of the following: <br />a. One week following myocardial infarction. <br />b. Unstable angina. <br />c. Aortic stenosis. <br />d. Peripheral vascular disease. <br />i) Ans. B <br /><br />162. A nineteen year old female with short stature, wide spread nipples and primary amenorrhoea most likely has a karyotype of: <br />a. 47, XX+18. <br />b. 46, XXY. <br />c. 47, XXY. <br />d. 45 X. <br />i) Ans. D<br /><br />163. Osteomalacia is associated with: <br />a. Decrease in osteoid volume. <br />b. Decrease in osteoid surface. <br />c. Increase in osteoid maturation time. <br />d. Increase in mineral apposition rate. <br />i) Ans. C<br /><br />164. A 23-year old woman has experienced episodes of myalgias, pleural effusion, pericarditis and arthralgias without joint deformity over course of several years. The best laboratory screening test to diagnose her disease would be: <br />a. CD4 lymphocyte count. <br />b. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate. <br />c. Antinuclear antibody. <br />d. Assay for thyroid hormones. <br />i) Ans. C<br /><br />165. A 5-year old boy is detected to be HBsAg positive on two separate occasions during a screening program for hepatitis B. He is otherwise asymptomatic. Child was given 3 doses of recombinant hepatitis B vaccine at the age of one year. His mother was treated for chronic hepatitis B infection around the same time. The next relevant step for further investigating the child would be to: <br />a. Obtain HBe Ag and anti-HBe antibodies. <br />b. Obtain anti-HBs levels. <br />c. Repeat HBsAg. <br />d. Repeat another course of hepatitis B vaccine. <br />i) Ans. A<br /><br />166. Which of the following hepatitis viruses have significant perinatal transmission: <br />a. Hepatitis E virus. <br />b. Hepatitis C virus <br />c. Hepatitis B virus. <br />d. Hepatitis A virus. <br />i) Ans. C<br /><br />167. The diffusion capacity of lung (DLCO) is decreased in all of the following conditions except: <br />a. Interstitial lung disease. <br />b. Goodpasture’s syndrome. <br />c. Emphysema. <br />d. Primary pulmonary hypertension. <br />i) Ans. B<br /><br />168. Osler’s nodes are typically seen in which one of the following: <br />a. Chronic candida endocarditis. <br />b. Acute staphylococcal endocarditis. <br />c. Pseudomonas endocarditis. <br />d. Libman sack’s endocarditis. <br />i) Ans. B <br /><br />169. Thiamine deficiency is known to occur in all of the following except: <br />a. Food Faddist. <br />b. Homocystinemia <br />c. Chronic alcoholic <br />d. Chronic heart failure patients on diuretics. <br />i) Ans. B<br /><br />170. Radiation exposure during infancy has been linked to which one of the following carcinoma: <br />a. Breast. <br />b. Melanoma. <br />c. Thyroid. <br />d. Lung. <br />i) Ans. C<br /><br />171. Recurrent ischemic events following thrombolysis has been pathophysiologically linked to which of the following factors: <br />a. Antibodies to thrombolytic agents. <br />b. Fibrinopeptide A. <br />c. Lipoprotein (a) [Lp(a)]. <br />d. Triglycerides. <br />i) Ans. A<br /><br />172. Which of the following is pan-T lymphocyte marker? <br />a. CD2. <br />b. CD3. <br />c. CD19. <br />d. CD25 <br />i) Ans. B<br /><br />173. Following are the features of corticospinal involvement except: <br />a. Cog-wheel rigidity. <br />b. Spasticity. <br />c. Plantar extensor response. <br />d. Exaggerated deep tendon reflexes. <br />i) Ans. A<br /><br />174. Positive feedback action of estrogen for inducting luteinizing hormone surge is associated with one of the following steroid hormone ratios in peripheral circulation: <br />a. High estrogen : low progesterone. <br />b. Low estrogen : high progesterone. <br />c. Low estrogen : low progestrone <br />d. High estrogen : high progesterone. <br />i) Ans. A<br /><br />175. A post-operative cardiac surgical patient developed sudden hypotension, raised central venous pressure, pulsus paradoxus at the 4th post operative hour. The most probable diagnosis is: <br />a. Excessive mediastinal bleeding. <br />b. Ventricular dysfunction. <br />c. Congestive cardiac failure. <br />d. Cardiac tamponade. <br />i) Ans. D<br /><br />PEDIATRICS <br />176. All of the following may occur in Noonan’s syndrome except: <br />a. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy. <br />b. Cryptorchidism. <br />c. Infertility in females. <br />d. Autosomal dominant transmission. <br />i) Ans. C <br /><br />177. In an single visit, a 9-month old, unimmunized child can be given the following vaccination: <br />a. Only BCG. <br />b. BCG, DPT-1, OPV-1. <br />c. DPT-1, OPV-1, Measles. <br />d. BCG, DPT-1 OPV-1, Measles. <br />i) Ans. D<br /><br />178. An eight-year old boy had abdominal pain, fever with bloody diarrhea for 18 months. His height is 110 cms and weight is 14.5 kg. Stool culture was negative for known enteropathogens. The sigmoidoscopy was normal. During the same period, child had an episode of renal colic and passed urinary gravel. The mantoux test was 5 × 5 mm. The most probable diagnosis is: <br />a. Ulcerative colitis. <br />b. Crohn’s disease. <br />c. Intestinal tuberculosis. <br />d. Strongyloidosis. <br />i) Ans. B <br /><br />179. A 45-day old infant developed icterus and two days later symptoms and signs of acute liver failure appeared. Child was found to be positive for HBsAg. The mother was also HBs Ag carrier. The mother’s hepatitis B serological profile is likely to be: <br />a. HBsAg positive only. <br />b. HBsAg and HbeAg positivity. <br />c. HBsAg and anti-HBe antibody positivity. <br />d. Mother infected with mutant HBV. <br />i) Ans. B<br /><br />180. A 15-year old healthy boy with no major medical problem complaints that he breaks out with blocky areas of erythema that are pruritic over skin of his arm, leg and trunk every time within an hour of eating sea foods. The clinical features are suggestive of: <br />a. Localised immune-complex deposition. <br />b. Cell mediated hypersensitivity. <br />c. Localized anaphylaxis. <br />d. Release of complement C3b. <br />i) Ans. C <br /><br />181. A 2-month baby presents with history of jaundice, turmeric colored urine and pale stools since birth. Examination reveals liver span of 10 cms, firm in consistency and spleen of 3 cms. The most specific investigation for establishing the diagnosis would be: <br />a. Liver function tests. <br />b. Ultrasound abdomen. <br />c. Peroperative cholangiogram. <br />d. Liver biopsy.<br />i) Ans. D <br /><br />182. Transient myeloproliferative disorder of the newborn is seen in association with: <br />a. Turner syndrome. <br />b. Down syndrome. <br />c. Neurofibromatosis. <br />d. Ataxia telangiectasia. <br />i) Ans. B<br /><br />183. A 1-month old baby presents with freuent vomiting and failure to thrive. There are features of moderate dehydration. Blood sodium is 122 mE/l and potassium is 6.1 mE/l. The most likely diagnosis is: <br />a. Gitelman syndrome. <br />b. Bartter Syndrome <br />c. 21-hydroxylase deficiency. <br />d. hydroxylase deficiency.D. 11- <br />i) Ans. C<br /><br />184. A male child of 15 years, with a mental age of 9 years has an I of: <br />a. 50 <br />b. 60 <br />c. 70 <br />d. 80 <br />i) Ans B <br /><br />185. The most appropriate drug used for chelation therapy in beta thalassemia major is: <br />a. Oral desferrioxamine<br />b. Oral deferiprone<br />c. Intramuscular EDTA<br />d. Oral Succimer<br />i) Ans B <br /><br />186. Which endocrine disorder is associated with epiphyseal dysgenesis ? <br />a. Hypothyroidism<br />b. Cushings syndrome<br />c. Addison’s disease<br />d. Hypoparathyroidism<br />i) Ans A<br /><br />187. An albino girl gets married to a normal boyWhat are the chances of their having an affected child and what are the chances of their children being carriers? <br />a. None affected, all carriers<br />b. All normal<br />c. 50% carriers<br />d. 50% affected, 50% carriers<br />i) Ans A<br /> <br />188. Which one of the following statements is false with regard to Xanthogranulomatous pyelonephritis in children<br />a. Often affects those younger than 8 years of age<br />b. It affects the kidney focally more freuently than diffusely<br />c. Boys are affected more freuently<br />d. Clinical presentation in children is same as in adults<br />i) Ans D <br /><br />189. Which one of the following statements is false with regard to pyuria in children? <br />a. Presence of more than 5 WBC/hpf (high power field) for girls and more than 3 WBC/hpf for boys<br />b. Infection can occur without pyuria<br />c. Pyuria may be present without urinary tract infection<br />d. Isolated pyuria is neither confirmatory nor diagnostic for urinary tract infection<br />i) Ans D <br /><br />190. Which one of the following is the most common cause of abdominal mass in neonates? <br />a. Neuroblastoma<br />b. Wilm’s tumour<br />c. Distended bladder<br />d. Multicystic dysplastic kidneys<br />i) Ans D <br /><br /><br />DERMATOLOGY <br />191. Acantholysis is characterstic of: <br />a. Pemphigus vulgaris <br />b. Pemphigoid <br />c. Erythema multiforme <br />d. Dermatitis herpetiformis <br />i) Ans A<br /> <br />192. A 5 year old boy has multiple asymptomatic oval and circular faintly hypopigmented macules with scaling on his faceThe most probable clinical diagnosis is: <br />a. Pityriasis versicolor<br />b. Indeterminate leprosy<br />c. Pityriasis alba<br />d. Acrofacial vitiligo<br />i) Ans C<br /><br />193. A 40-year old male developed persistent oral ulcers followed by multiple flaccid bullae on trunk and extremitiesDirect examination of a skin biopsy immunofluorescence showed intercellular IgG deposits in the epidermisThe most probable diagnosis is: <br />a. Pemphigus vulgaris<br />b. Bullous pemphigoid<br />c. Bullous lupus erythematosus<br />d. Epidermolysis bullosa acuisita<br />i) Ans A <br /><br />194. The test likely to help in diagnosis of a patient who presents with an itchy annular plaue on the face is: <br />a. Gram’s stain<br />b. Potassium hydroxide mount<br />c. Tissue smear<br />d. Wood’s lamp examination<br />i) Ans B <br /><br />195. An eleven year old boy is having tinea capitis on his scalpThe most appropriate line of treatment is: <br />a. Oral griseofulvin therapy<br />b. Topical griseofulvin therapy<br />c. Shaving of the scalp<br />d. Selenium sulphide shampoo<br />i) Ans A<br /> <br />196. An 8 month old child presented with itchy, exudative lesions on the face, palms and solesThe sibling also have similar com-plaintsThe treatment of choice in such a patient is: <br />a. Systemic ampicillin<br />b. Topical betamethasone<br />c. Systemic prednisolone<br />d. Topical permethrin<br />i) Ans D<br /> <br /><br />PSYCHIATRY <br />197. Which of the following symbol represent adopted individuals: <br />a. A<br />b. B<br />c. C<br />d. D<br />i) Ans D<br /> <br />198. All of the following are features of hallucinations, except: <br />a. It is independent of the will of the observer<br />b. Sensory organs are not involved<br />c. It is as vivid as that in a true sense perception<br />d. It occurs in the absence of a perceptual stimulus<br />i) Ans B<br /> <br />199. Delirium tremens is characterized by confusion associated with: <br />a. Autonomic hyperactivity and tremors<br />b. Features of intoxication due to alcohol<br />c. Sixth nerve palsy<br />d. Korsakoff psychosis<br />i) Ans A<br /> <br />200. All of the following are impulse control disorders except: <br />a. Pyromania<br />b. Trichotillomania<br />c. Kleptomania<br />d. Capgras’ syndrome<br />i) Ans D<br /><br />201. A 20-year old man has presented with increased alcohol consumption and sexual indulgence, irritability, lack of sleep and not feeling fatigued even on prolonged periods of activityAll these changes have been present for 3 weeksThe most likely diagnosis is: <br />a. Alcohol dependence<br />b. Schizophrenia<br />c. Mania<br />d. Impulsive control disorder<br />i) Ans C<br /> <br />202. An alcoholic is brought to the Emergency OPD with the complaint of irrelevant talkingHe had stopped using alcohol three days backOn examination, he is found to be disoriented to time, place and personHe also has visual illusions and hallucinationsThere is no history of head injuryThe most likely diagnosis is: <br />a. Dementia praecox<br />b. Derlirium tremens<br />c. Schizophrenia<br />d. Korsakoff’s psychosis<br />i) Ans B<br /> <br />203. A 41-year old married female presented with headache for the last 6 monthsShe had several consultationsAll her investigations were found to be within normal limitsShe still insists that there is something wrong in her head and seeks another consultationThe most likely diagnosis is: <br />a. Phobia<br />b. Psychogenic headache<br />c. Hypochondriasis<br />d. Depression<br />i) Ans C<br /> <br />204. Behavior therapy to change maladaptive behaviors using response as reinforcer uses the principles of: <br />a. Classical conditioning<br />b. Moneling<br />c. Social learning<br />d. Operant conditioning<br />i) Ans D<br /> <br />205. A 15 year old boy feels that the dirt has hung onto him whenever he passes through the dirty streetThis repetitive thought causes much distress and anxietyHe knows that there is actually no such thing after he has cleaned once but he is not satisfied and is compelled to think soThis has led to social withdrawalHe spends much of his time thinking about the dirt and contaminationThis has affected his studies alsoThe most likely diagnosis is: <br />a. Obsessive compulsive disorder<br />b. Conduct disorder<br />c. Agoraphobia<br />d. Adjustment disorder<br />i) Ans A<br /> <br />206. A 50 year old man has presented with pain in back, lack of interest in recreational activities, low mood, lethargy, decreased sleep and appetite for two monthsThere was no history suggestive of delusions or hallucinationsHe did not suffer from any chronic medical illnessThere was no family history of psychiatric illnessRoutine investigations including haemogram, renal function tests, liver functions tests, electrocardiogram did not reveal any abnormalityThis patient should be treated with: <br />a. Haloperidol<br />b. Sertraline<br />c. Alprazolam<br />d. Olanzapine<br />i) Ans B<br /> <br /><br />GENERAL SURGERY <br />207. A 70 year old male patient presented with history of chest pain and was diagnosed to have coronary artery diseaseDuring routine evaluation, an ultrasound of the abdomen showed presence of gallbladder stonesThere was no past history of biliary colic or jaundiceWhat is the best treatment advice for such a patient for his gallbladder stones: <br />a. Open cholecystectomy <br />b. Laparoscopic cholecystectomy <br />c. No surgery for gallbladder stones <br />d. ERCP and removal of gallbladder stones <br />i) Ans C<br /> <br />208. Early stage of trauma is characterized by: <br />a. Catabolism<br />b. Anabolism<br />c. Glycogenesis<br />d. Gluconeogenesis<br />i) Ans A<br /> <br />209. Bedsore is an example of: <br />a. Tropical ulcer <br />b. Trophic ulcer <br />c. Venous ulcer <br />d. Post thrombotic ulcer <br />i) Ans B<br /> <br />210. Marjolin’s ulcer is: <br />a. Malignant ulcer found on the scar of burn<br />b. Malignant ulcer found on infected foot<br />c. Trophic ulcer<br />d. Meleney’s gangrene<br />i) Ans A<br /> <br />211. If a patient with Raynaud’s disease immer-sed his hand in cold water, the hand will: <br />a. Become red<br />b. Remain unchanged<br />c. Turn white<br />d. Become blue<br />i) Ans C<br /><br />212. The best treatment for cystic hygroma is: <br />a. Surgical excision<br />b. Radiotherapy<br />c. Sclerotherapy<br />d. Chemotherapy<br />i) Ans A<br /> <br />213. Which of the following is most suggestive of neonatal small bowel obstruction: <br />a. Generalised abdominal distension<br />b. Failure to pass meconeum in the first 24 hours<br />c. Bilious vomiting<br />d. Refusal of feeds<br />i) Ans C<br /> <br />214. What is most characteristic of congenital hypertrophic pyloric stenosis: <br />a. Affects the first born female child<br />b. The pyloric tumour is best felt during feeding<br />c. The patient is commonly marasmic<br />d. Loss of appetite occurs early<br />i) Ans B<br /> <br />215. Which of the following lasers is used for treatment of benign prostatic hyperplasia as well as urinary calculi? <br />a. CO2 laser <br />b. Excimer laser <br />c. Ho : YAG laser <br />d. Nd : YAG laser <br />i) Ans C<br /> <br />216. What is the most appropriate operation for a solitary nodule in one lobe of thyroid: <br />a. Lobectomy <br />b. Hemithyroidectomy<br />c. Nodule removal<br />d. Partial lobectomy with 1 cm margin around nodule<br />i) Ans B<br /> <br />217. A posteriorly perforating ulcer in the pyloric antrum of the stomach is most likely to produce initial localized peritonitis or abscess formation in the following: <br />a. Omental bursa (lesser sac) <br />b. Greater sac <br />c. Right subphrenic space <br />d. Hepatorenal space (pouch of Morrison) <br />i) Ans A<br /> <br />218. A 65-year old male smoker presents with gross total painless hematuriaThe most likely diagnosis is: <br />a. Carcinoma urinary bladder<br />b. Benign prostatic hyperplasia<br />c. Carcinoma prostate<br />d. Cystolithiasis<br />i) Ans A<br /> <br />219. A 10-mm calculus in the right lower ureter associated with proximal hydrouretero-nephrosis is best treated with: <br />a. Extracorporeal shockwave lithotripsy<br />b. Antegrade percutaneous access<br />c. Open ureterolithotomy<br />d. Ureteroscopic retrieval<br />i) Ans D<br /> <br />220. Semen analysis of a young man who presented with primary infertility revealed low volume, fructose negative ejaculate with azoospermiaWhich of the following is the most useful imaging modality to evaluate the cause of his infertility ? <br />a. Colour duplex ultrasonography of the scrotum<br />b. Transrectal ultrasonography<br />c. Retrograde urethrography <br />d. Spermatic venography<br />i) Ans B<br /> <br />221. A 70 year old patient with benign prostatic hyperplasia underwent transurethral resection of prostate under spinal anaesthesiaOne hour later, he developed vomiting and altered sensoriumthe most probable cause is: <br />a. Overdosage of spinal anaesthetic agent<br />b. Rupture of bladder<br />c. Hyperkalemia<br />d. Water intoxication<br />i) Ans D<br /> <br />222. A 50-year old male, working as a hotel cook, has four dependent family membersHe has been diagnosed with an early stage suamous cell cancer of anal canalHe has more than 60% chances of cureThe best treatment option is: <br />a. Abdomino-perineal resection<br />b. Combined surgery and radiotherapy<br />c. Combined chemotherapy and radiotherapy<br />d. Chemotherapy alone<br />i) Ans C<br /> <br />223. The commonest cause of an obliterative stricture of the membranous urethra is: <br />a. Fall-astride injury<br />b. Road-traffic accident with fracture pelvis and rupture urethra<br />c. Prolonged catheterization<br />d. Gonococcal infection <br />i) Ans B<br /><br />224. Which of the following is an absolute indication for surgery in cases of benign prostatic hyperplasia: <br />a. Bilateral hydroureteronephrosis<br />b. Nocturnal freuency<br />c. Recurrent urinary tract infection<br />d. Voiding bladder pressures >50 cm of water<br />i) Ans A<br /> <br />225. A 27 year old man presents with a left testicular tumor with a 10 cm retroperitoneal lymph node massThe treatment of choice is: <br />a. Radiotherapy<br />b. Immunotherapy with interferon and inter-leukins<br />c. Left high inguinal orchidectomy plus chemotherapy<br />d. Chemotherapy alone<br />i) Ans C<br /> <br />226. The best time for Surgery of hypospadias is: <br />a. 1-4 months of age<br />b. 6-10 months of age<br />c. 12-18 months of age<br />d. 2-4 years of age<br />i) Ans B<br /><br />227. The Hunterian Ligature operation is performed for: <br />a. Varicose veins<br />b. Arteriovenous fistulae<br />c. Aneurysm<br />d. Acute ischemia<br />i) Ans C<br /> <br />228. Sympathectomy is indicated in all the following conditions except: <br />a. Ischaemic ulcers<br />b. Intermittent claudication<br />c. Anhidrosis<br />d. Acrocyanosis<br />i) Ans C<br /> <br /><br />ORTHOPAEDICS <br />229. Commonest cause for neuralgic pain in foot is: <br />a. Compression of communication between medial and lateral plantar nerve<br />b. Exaggeration of longitudinal arches<br />c. Injury to deltoid ligament<br />d. Shortening of plantar aponeurosis<br />i) Ans A<br /> <br />230. In actinomycosis of the spine, the abscess usually erodes: <br />a. Intervertebral disc <br />b. Into the pleural cavity <br />c. Into the retroperitoneal space <br />d. Towards the SKIN <br />i) Ans D<br /><br />231. A ten-year old girl presents with swelling of one knee jointAll of the following conditions can be considered in the differential diagnosis, except: <br />a. Tuberculosis <br />b. Juvenile rheumatoid arthritis <br />c. Haemophilia <br />d. Villonodular synovitis <br />i) Ans C<br /> <br />232. Avascular necrosis can be a possible seuelae of FRACTURE of all of the following bones, except: <br />a. Femur neck <br />b. Scaphoid <br />c. Talus <br />d. Calcaneum <br />i) Ans D<br /> <br />233. Sciatic nerve palsy may occur in the following injury: <br />a. Posterior dislocation of hip joint<br />b. FRACTURE neck of femur<br />c. Trochanteric FRACTURE <br />d. Anterior dislocation of hip<br />i) Ans A<br /> <br />234. A 30-year old male was brought to the casualty following a road traffic accidentHis physical examination revealed that his right lower limb was short, internally rotated and flexed and adducted at the hipThe most likely diagnosis is: <br />a. FRACTURE neck of femur<br />b. Trochanteric FRACTURE <br />c. Central FRACTURE dislocation of hip<br />d. Posterior dislocation of hip<br />i) Ans D<br /> <br />235. Which one of the following tests will you adopt while examining a knee joint where you suspect an old tear of anterior cruciate ligament? <br />a. Posterior drawer test<br />b. McMurray test<br />c. Lachman test<br />d. Pivot shift test<br />i) Ans C<br /> <br />236. An eight-year old boy presents with back pain and mild feverHis plain X-ray of the dorsolumbar spine reveals a solitary collapsed dorsal vertebra with preserved disc spacesThere was no associated soft tissue shadowThe most likely diagnosis is: <br />a. Ewing’s sarcoma<br />b. Tuberculosis<br />c. Histiocytosis<br />d. Metastasis<br />i) Ans C<br /> <br />237. Kienbock’s disease is due to avascular necrosis of: <br />a. Femoral neck<br />b. Medial cuneiform bone<br />c. Lunate bone<br />d. Scaphoid bone<br />i) Ans C<br /> <br />238. Pseudoclaudication is due to compression of: <br />a. Femoral artery<br />b. Femoral nerve<br />c. Cauda Euina<br />d. Popliteal artery<br />i) Ans C<br /> <br /><br />ANAESTHESIA <br />239. An anaesthetist orders a new attendent to bring the oxygen cylinderHe will ask the attendent to identify the correct cylinder by following color code: <br />a. Black cylinder with white shoulder<br />b. Black cylinder with grey shoulder<br />c. White cylinder with black shoulder<br />d. Grey cylinder with white shoulder<br />i) Ans A<br /> <br />240. During rapid seuence induction of Anaesthesia : <br />a. Sellick’s maneuver is not reuired<br />b. Pre-oxygenation is mandatory<br />c. Suxamethonium is contraindicated<br />d. Patient is mechanically ventilated before endotracheal intubation<br />i) Ans B<br /> <br />241. A 5 year old boy suffering from Duchenne muscular dystrophy has to undergo tendon lengthening procedureThe most appropriate anaesthetic would be: <br />a. Induction with intravenous thiopentone and N2O & halothane for maintenance<br />b. Induction with intravenous propofol and N2O & oxygen for maintenance<br />c. Induction with intravenous suxamethonium and N2O & halothane for maintenance<br />d. Inhalation induction with inhalation halothane and N2O & oxygen for maintenance<br />i) Ans B<br /> <br />242. A 25 year old male is undergoing incision and drainage of abscess under general Anaesthesia with spontaneous respirationThe most efficient anaesthetic circuit is: <br />a. Mapleson A <br />b. Mapleson B <br />c. Mapleson C <br />d. Mapleson D <br />i) Ans A<br /> <br />243. In all the following conditions neuraxial blockade is absolutely contraindicated, except: <br />a. Patient refusal<br />b. Coagulopathy<br />c. Severe hypovolemia<br />d. Pre-existing neurological deficits<br />i) Ans D<br /> <br />244. Interscalene approach to brachial plexus block does not provide surgical Anaesthesia in the area of distribution of which of the following nerve: <br />a. Musculocutaneous<br />b. Ulnar<br />c. Radial<br />d. Median<br />i) Ans B<br /> <br />245. At the end of a balanced Anaesthesia techniue with non-depolarizing muscle relaxant, a patient recovered spontaneously from the effect of muscle relaxant without any reversalWhich is the most probable relaxant the patient had received? <br />a. Pancuronium <br />b. Gallamine <br />c. Atracuronium <br />d. Vecuronium <br />i) Ans C<br /> <br />246. A 64 year old hypertensive obese female was undergoing Surgery for FRACTURE femur under general Anaesthesia Intra-operatively her end tidal carbon dioxide decreased to 20 from 40 mm Hg, followed by hypotension and oxygen saturation of 85%What would be the most probable cause: <br />a. Fat embolism <br />b. Hypovolemia <br />c. Bronchospasm <br />d. Myocardial infarction <br />i) Ans A <br /><br />247. One unit of fresh blood raises the Hb% concentration by: <br />a. gm% <br />b. gm% <br />c. gm% <br />d. 2.2 gm% <br />i) Ans B<br /> <br />248. A 50 kgman with severe metabolic acidosis has the following parameters: pH 7.05, pCO2 12 mmHg, pO2 108 mmHg, HCO3 5 mE/L, base excess -30 mE/LThe approximate uantity of sodium bicarbonate that he should receive in half hour is: <br />a. 250 mE<br />b. 350 mE<br />c. 500 mE<br />d. 750 mE<br />i) Ans A<br /> <br />249. The induction agent of choice in day care Anaesthesia is: <br />a. Sevoflurane<br />b. Ketamine<br />c. Propofol<br />d. Methohexitone<br />i) Ans C<br /> <br />250. A 38 year old man is posted for extraction of last molar tooth under general Anaesthesia as a day care caseHe wishes to resume his work after 6 hoursWhich one of the following induction agents is preferred: <br />a. Thiopentone sodium<br />b. Ketamine<br />c. Diazepam<br />d. Propofol<br />i) Ans D<br /> <br />251. During cardiopulmonary resuscitation, intravenous calcium gluconate is indicated under all of the following circumstances, except: <br />a. After 1 minof arrest routinely<br />b. Hypocalcemia<br />c. Calcium channel blocker toxicity<br />d. Electromechanical dissociation<br />i) Ans A<br /> <br />252. Induction agent that may cause adrenal cortex suppression is: <br />a. Ketamine<br />b. Etomidate<br />c. Propofol<br />d. Thiopentone<br />i) Ans B<br /> <br />OBSTETRICS AND GYNAECOLOGY <br />253. A 40 year old lady delivered a full term babyOn examination of the baby, the neonatologist noted certain urogenital abnormalityHe took the following pictureThe most likely diagnosis is: <br />a. Urogenital sinus <br />b. Hypertrophied clitoris <br />c. Miocropenis <br />d. Vulval hematoma <br />i) Ans B<br /> <br />254. A 55 year old lady presenting to out patient department (OPD) with postmenopausal bleeding for 3 months has a 1 × 1 cm nodule on the anterior lip of cervixThe most appropriate investigation to be done subseuently is: <br />a. Pap smear <br />b. Punch biopsy <br />c. Endocervical curettage <br />d. Colposcopy <br />i) Ans B<br /> <br />255. A hemodynamically stable nulliparous patient with ectopic pregnancy has adnexal mass of 2.5 × 3 cms and beta hCG titre of 1500 miu/mlWhat modality of treatment is suitable for her: <br />a. Conservative management <br />b. Medical management <br />c. Laparoscopic Surgery <br />d. Laparotomy <br />i) Ans B<br /> <br />256. A case of gestational trophoblastic neoplasia belongs to high risk group if disease develop after: <br />a. Hydatidiform mole <br />b. Full term pregnancy <br />c. Spontaneous abortion <br />d. Ectopic pregnancy <br />i) Ans B<div class="blogger-post-footer"><img width='1' height='1' src='https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/tracker/2608962106724577004-3984593843183738616?l=hi5times.blogspot.com' alt='' /></div>ckanthnoreply@blogger.com0tag:blogger.com,1999:blog-2608962106724577004.post-69032865028045069792009-05-26T23:59:00.000-07:002009-05-27T00:00:00.961-07:00<span style="font-size:85%;"><o:smarttagtype namespaceuri="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:office:smarttags" name="country-region"></o:smarttagtype><o:smarttagtype namespaceuri="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:office:smarttags" name="City"></o:smarttagtype><o:smarttagtype namespaceuri="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:office:smarttags" name="place"></o:smarttagtype><o:smarttagtype namespaceuri="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:office:smarttags" name="date"></o:smarttagtype></span><!--[if gte mso 9]><xml> <w:worddocument> <w:view>Normal</w:View> <w:zoom>0</w:Zoom> <w:compatibility> <w:breakwrappedtables/> <w:snaptogridincell/> <w:wraptextwithpunct/> <w:useasianbreakrules/> </w:Compatibility> <w:browserlevel>MicrosoftInternetExplorer4</w:BrowserLevel> </w:WordDocument> </xml><![endif]--><!--[if !mso]><object classid="clsid:38481807-CA0E-42D2-BF39-B33AF135CC4D" id="ieooui"></object> <style> st1\:*{behavior:url(#ieooui) } </style> <![endif]--><style> <!-- /* Font Definitions */ @font-face {font-family:Wingdings; 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mso-level-number-position:left; text-indent:-.25in; font-family:TT5FBO00; mso-bidi-font-family:TT5FBO00;} @list l0:level2 {mso-level-number-format:bullet; mso-level-text:; mso-level-tab-stop:1.0in; mso-level-number-position:left; text-indent:-.25in; font-family:Wingdings;} ol {margin-bottom:0in;} ul {margin-bottom:0in;} --> </style><!--[if gte mso 10]> <style> /* Style Definitions */ table.MsoNormalTable {mso-style-name:"Table Normal"; mso-tstyle-rowband-size:0; mso-tstyle-colband-size:0; mso-style-noshow:yes; mso-style-parent:""; mso-padding-alt:0in 5.4pt 0in 5.4pt; mso-para-margin:0in; mso-para-margin-bottom:.0001pt; mso-pagination:widow-orphan; font-size:10.0pt; font-family:"Times New Roman";} </style> <![endif]--> <p class="MsoNormal"><span style=";font-family:Verdana;font-size:85%;" ><span style="color: rgb(0, 0, 153);">MCI Screening TEST September 2009</span></span></p><p class="MsoNormal"><a href="http://www.natboard.edu.in/fmge.php"><span style="color: rgb(255, 153, 255); font-weight: bold;">Application</span></a></p><p class="MsoNormal"><a href="http://www.natboard.edu.in/fmge.php"><span style="color: rgb(255, 153, 255); font-weight: bold;">Information bulliten<br /></span></a></p><p class="MsoNormal"><br /><span style=";font-family:Verdana;font-size:85%;" ><o:p></o:p></span></p> <p class="MsoNormal"><span style=";font-family:Verdana;font-size:85%;" > <o:p></o:p></span></p> <p class="MsoNormal"><span style="color: rgb(35, 31, 32);font-family:Verdana;font-size:85%;" >The FMGE-Screening Test has been introduced by the Screening Test Regulations<o:p></o:p></span></p> <p class="MsoNormal"><span style="color: rgb(35, 31, 32);font-family:Verdana;font-size:85%;" >2002. As per the regulations, “An Indian citizen possessing a primary medical<o:p></o:p></span></p> <p class="MsoNormal"><span style="color: rgb(35, 31, 32);font-family:Verdana;font-size:85%;" >qualification awarded by any medical institution outside </span><span style="font-size:85%;"><st1:country-region><st1:place><span style="color: rgb(35, 31, 32);font-family:Verdana;" >India</span></st1:place></st1:country-region></span><span style="color: rgb(35, 31, 32);font-family:Verdana;font-size:85%;" > who is desirous of getting<o:p></o:p></span></p> <p class="MsoNormal"><span style="color: rgb(35, 31, 32);font-family:Verdana;font-size:85%;" >provisional or permanent registration with the Medical Council of India or any State<o:p></o:p></span></p> <p class="MsoNormal"><span style="color: rgb(35, 31, 32);font-family:Verdana;font-size:85%;" >Medical Council on or after 15.03.2002 shall have to qualify a screening test conducted<o:p></o:p></span></p> <p class="MsoNormal"><span style="color: rgb(35, 31, 32);font-family:Verdana;font-size:85%;" >by the prescribed authority for that purpose as per the provisions of section 13 of the<o:p></o:p></span></p> <p class="MsoNormal"><span style="color: rgb(35, 31, 32);font-family:Verdana;font-size:85%;" >Act.”<o:p></o:p></span></p> <ol style="margin-top: 0in;" start="1" type="1"><li class="MsoNormal" style="color: rgb(35, 31, 32);"><span style=";font-family:Verdana;font-size:85%;" >The Examination is held twice a year at </span><span style="font-size:85%;"><st1:city><st1:place><span style="font-family:Verdana;">New Delhi</span></st1:place></st1:city></span><span style=";font-family:Verdana;font-size:85%;" >.<o:p></o:p></span></li><li class="MsoNormal" style="color: rgb(35, 31, 32);"><span style=";font-family:Verdana;font-size:85%;" >The test is conducted in English language.<o:p></o:p></span></li><li class="MsoNormal" style="color: rgb(35, 31, 32);"><span style=";font-family:Verdana;font-size:85%;" >The exam consists of one paper.<o:p></o:p></span></li><li class="MsoNormal" style="color: rgb(35, 31, 32);"><span style=";font-family:Verdana;font-size:85%;" >There will be 300 multiple-choice questions (MCQ) of single response type in the paper (Divided in two sittings of 150 questions each).<o:p></o:p></span></li><li class="MsoNormal" style="color: rgb(35, 31, 32);"><span style=";font-family:Verdana;font-size:85%;" >There is NO negative marking.<o:p></o:p></span></li><li class="MsoNormal" style="color: rgb(35, 31, 32);"><span style=";font-family:Verdana;font-size:85%;" >An applicant shall be declared as having passed only if he/she obtains a minimum of 50% of marks in the examination.<o:p></o:p></span></li><li class="MsoNormal" style="color: rgb(35, 31, 32);"><span style=";font-family:Verdana;font-size:85%;" >Results (Pass/Fail) for eligible candidates will be displayed at the website and office of NBE. There is no provision for declaration of marks obtained or reevaluation/retotalling.<o:p></o:p></span></li><li class="MsoNormal" style="color: rgb(35, 31, 32);"><span style=";font-family:Verdana;font-size:85%;" >The applicants who qualify the Screening Test may apply to the Medical Council of India, </span><span style="font-size:85%;"><st1:city><st1:place><span style="font-family:Verdana;">New Delhi</span></st1:place></st1:city></span><span style=";font-family:Verdana;font-size:85%;" > or to any State Medical Council for provisional registration / permanent registration.<o:p></o:p></span></li><li class="MsoNormal" style="color: rgb(35, 31, 32);"><span style=";font-family:Verdana;font-size:85%;" >There are no restrictions on number of attempts that can be availed by an applicant.<o:p></o:p></span></li></ol> <p class="MsoNormal"><span style="color: rgb(35, 31, 32);font-family:Verdana;font-size:85%;" ><o:p> </o:p></span></p> <p class="MsoNormal"><span style="color: rgb(35, 31, 32);font-family:Verdana;font-size:85%;" ><span style="color: rgb(0, 0, 153);"><br /></span></span></p><p class="MsoNormal"><span style="color: rgb(35, 31, 32);font-family:Verdana;font-size:85%;" ><span style="color: rgb(0, 0, 153);">Important dates to Remember</span><o:p></o:p></span></p> <ol style="margin-top: 0in;" start="9" type="1"><ul style="margin-top: 0in;" type="square"><li class="MsoNormal" style="color: rgb(102, 0, 204);"><span style=";font-family:Verdana;font-size:85%;" >Availability of Information Bulletin </span><span style=";font-family:Verdana;font-size:85%;" ><span style=""> </span></span><span style=";font-family:Verdana;font-size:85%;" >At Online : </span><span style="color: rgb(204, 51, 204); font-weight: bold;font-size:85%;" ><st1:date year="2009" day="27" month="5"><span style="font-family:Verdana;">27^thMay, 2009</span></st1:date></span><span style=";font-family:Verdana;font-size:85%;" > <span style=""> </span><o:p></o:p></span></li><li class="MsoNormal" style="color: rgb(102, 0, 204);"><span style=";font-family:Verdana;font-size:85%;" >At Indian Bank : </span><span style="color: rgb(204, 51, 204); font-weight: bold;font-size:85%;" ><st1:date year="2009" day="27" month="5"><span style="font-family:Verdana;">27^th May, 2009</span></st1:date></span><span style=";font-family:Verdana;font-size:85%;" ><o:p></o:p></span></li><li class="MsoNormal" style="color: rgb(102, 0, 204);"><span style=";font-family:Verdana;font-size:85%;" >Last date for Receiving of Application Forms : </span><span style="color: rgb(204, 51, 204); font-weight: bold;font-size:85%;" ><st1:date year="2009" day="26" month="6"><span style="font-family:Verdana;">26^th <span style=""> </span>June, 2009</span></st1:date></span><span style=";font-family:Verdana;font-size:85%;" ><o:p></o:p></span></li><li class="MsoNormal" style="color: rgb(102, 0, 204);"><span style=";font-family:Verdana;font-size:85%;" >Last date for Receiving of Application Forms (with late fees) : </span><span style="color: rgb(204, 51, 204); font-weight: bold;font-size:85%;" ><st1:date year="2009" day="15" month="7"><span style="font-family:Verdana;">15^th <span style=""> </span></span><span style="font-family:Verdana;"><span style=""> </span></span><span style="font-family:Verdana;">July, 2009</span></st1:date></span><span style=";font-family:Verdana;font-size:85%;" ><o:p></o:p></span></li><li class="MsoNormal" style="color: rgb(102, 0, 204);"><span style=";font-family:Verdana;font-size:85%;" >Dispatch of Admit Cards will begin : </span><span style="color: rgb(204, 51, 204); font-weight: bold;font-size:85%;" ><st1:date year="2009" day="7" month="9"><span style="font-family:Verdana;">07^th </span><span style="font-family:Verdana;"><span style=""> </span></span><span style="font-family:Verdana;">September, 2009</span></st1:date></span><span style=";font-family:Verdana;font-size:85%;" ><o:p></o:p></span></li><li class="MsoNormal" style=""><span style="color: rgb(102, 0, 204);font-family:Verdana;font-size:85%;" >Date of Exam : </span><span style="color: rgb(204, 51, 204); font-weight: bold;font-size:85%;" ><st1:date year="2009" day="7" month="9"><span style="font-family:Verdana;">27^th </span><span style="font-family:Verdana;"><span style=""> </span></span><span style="font-family:Verdana;">September, 2009</span></st1:date></span></li></ul></ol> <p class="MsoNormal"><span style=";font-family:Verdana;font-size:85%;" ><o:p> </o:p></span></p><div class="blogger-post-footer"><img width='1' height='1' src='https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/tracker/2608962106724577004-6903286502804506979?l=hi5times.blogspot.com' alt='' /></div>ckanthnoreply@blogger.com2tag:blogger.com,1999:blog-2608962106724577004.post-29254326222012863442009-05-26T23:56:00.000-07:002009-05-26T23:57:18.086-07:00<span style="font-size:85%;"><o:smarttagtype namespaceuri="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:office:smarttags" name="country-region"></o:smarttagtype><o:smarttagtype namespaceuri="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:office:smarttags" name="City"></o:smarttagtype><o:smarttagtype namespaceuri="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:office:smarttags" name="place"></o:smarttagtype><o:smarttagtype namespaceuri="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:office:smarttags" name="date"></o:smarttagtype></span><!--[if gte mso 9]><xml> <w:worddocument> <w:view>Normal</w:View> <w:zoom>0</w:Zoom> <w:compatibility> <w:breakwrappedtables/> <w:snaptogridincell/> <w:wraptextwithpunct/> <w:useasianbreakrules/> </w:Compatibility> <w:browserlevel>MicrosoftInternetExplorer4</w:BrowserLevel> </w:WordDocument> </xml><![endif]--><!--[if !mso]><object classid="clsid:38481807-CA0E-42D2-BF39-B33AF135CC4D" id="ieooui"></object> <style> st1\:*{behavior:url(#ieooui) } </style> <![endif]--><style> <!-- /* Font Definitions */ @font-face {font-family:Wingdings; 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mso-level-number-position:left; text-indent:-.25in; font-family:TT5FBO00; mso-bidi-font-family:TT5FBO00;} @list l0:level2 {mso-level-number-format:bullet; mso-level-text:; mso-level-tab-stop:1.0in; mso-level-number-position:left; text-indent:-.25in; font-family:Wingdings;} ol {margin-bottom:0in;} ul {margin-bottom:0in;} --> </style><!--[if gte mso 10]> <style> /* Style Definitions */ table.MsoNormalTable {mso-style-name:"Table Normal"; mso-tstyle-rowband-size:0; mso-tstyle-colband-size:0; mso-style-noshow:yes; mso-style-parent:""; mso-padding-alt:0in 5.4pt 0in 5.4pt; mso-para-margin:0in; mso-para-margin-bottom:.0001pt; mso-pagination:widow-orphan; font-size:10.0pt; font-family:"Times New Roman";} </style> <![endif]--> <p class="MsoNormal"><span style=";font-family:Verdana;font-size:85%;" ><span style="color: rgb(0, 0, 153);">FMGE Screening TEST September 2009</span></span></p><p class="MsoNormal"><a href="http://www.natboard.edu.in/fmge.php"><span style="color: rgb(255, 153, 255); font-weight: bold;">Application</span></a></p><p class="MsoNormal"><a href="http://www.natboard.edu.in/fmge.php"><span style="color: rgb(255, 153, 255); font-weight: bold;">Information bulliten<br /></span></a></p><p class="MsoNormal"><br /><span style=";font-family:Verdana;font-size:85%;" ><o:p></o:p></span></p> <p class="MsoNormal"><span style=";font-family:Verdana;font-size:85%;" > <o:p></o:p></span></p> <p class="MsoNormal"><span style="color: rgb(35, 31, 32);font-family:Verdana;font-size:85%;" >The FMGE-Screening Test has been introduced by the Screening Test Regulations<o:p></o:p></span></p> <p class="MsoNormal"><span style="color: rgb(35, 31, 32);font-family:Verdana;font-size:85%;" >2002. As per the regulations, “An Indian citizen possessing a primary medical<o:p></o:p></span></p> <p class="MsoNormal"><span style="color: rgb(35, 31, 32);font-family:Verdana;font-size:85%;" >qualification awarded by any medical institution outside </span><span style="font-size:85%;"><st1:country-region><st1:place><span style="color: rgb(35, 31, 32);font-family:Verdana;" >India</span></st1:place></st1:country-region></span><span style="color: rgb(35, 31, 32);font-family:Verdana;font-size:85%;" > who is desirous of getting<o:p></o:p></span></p> <p class="MsoNormal"><span style="color: rgb(35, 31, 32);font-family:Verdana;font-size:85%;" >provisional or permanent registration with the Medical Council of India or any State<o:p></o:p></span></p> <p class="MsoNormal"><span style="color: rgb(35, 31, 32);font-family:Verdana;font-size:85%;" >Medical Council on or after 15.03.2002 shall have to qualify a screening test conducted<o:p></o:p></span></p> <p class="MsoNormal"><span style="color: rgb(35, 31, 32);font-family:Verdana;font-size:85%;" >by the prescribed authority for that purpose as per the provisions of section 13 of the<o:p></o:p></span></p> <p class="MsoNormal"><span style="color: rgb(35, 31, 32);font-family:Verdana;font-size:85%;" >Act.”<o:p></o:p></span></p> <ol style="margin-top: 0in;" start="1" type="1"><li class="MsoNormal" style="color: rgb(35, 31, 32);"><span style=";font-family:Verdana;font-size:85%;" >The Examination is held twice a year at </span><span style="font-size:85%;"><st1:city><st1:place><span style="font-family:Verdana;">New Delhi</span></st1:place></st1:city></span><span style=";font-family:Verdana;font-size:85%;" >.<o:p></o:p></span></li><li class="MsoNormal" style="color: rgb(35, 31, 32);"><span style=";font-family:Verdana;font-size:85%;" >The test is conducted in English language.<o:p></o:p></span></li><li class="MsoNormal" style="color: rgb(35, 31, 32);"><span style=";font-family:Verdana;font-size:85%;" >The exam consists of one paper.<o:p></o:p></span></li><li class="MsoNormal" style="color: rgb(35, 31, 32);"><span style=";font-family:Verdana;font-size:85%;" >There will be 300 multiple-choice questions (MCQ) of single response type in the paper (Divided in two sittings of 150 questions each).<o:p></o:p></span></li><li class="MsoNormal" style="color: rgb(35, 31, 32);"><span style=";font-family:Verdana;font-size:85%;" >There is NO negative marking.<o:p></o:p></span></li><li class="MsoNormal" style="color: rgb(35, 31, 32);"><span style=";font-family:Verdana;font-size:85%;" >An applicant shall be declared as having passed only if he/she obtains a minimum of 50% of marks in the examination.<o:p></o:p></span></li><li class="MsoNormal" style="color: rgb(35, 31, 32);"><span style=";font-family:Verdana;font-size:85%;" >Results (Pass/Fail) for eligible candidates will be displayed at the website and office of NBE. There is no provision for declaration of marks obtained or reevaluation/retotalling.<o:p></o:p></span></li><li class="MsoNormal" style="color: rgb(35, 31, 32);"><span style=";font-family:Verdana;font-size:85%;" >The applicants who qualify the Screening Test may apply to the Medical Council of India, </span><span style="font-size:85%;"><st1:city><st1:place><span style="font-family:Verdana;">New Delhi</span></st1:place></st1:city></span><span style=";font-family:Verdana;font-size:85%;" > or to any State Medical Council for provisional registration / permanent registration.<o:p></o:p></span></li><li class="MsoNormal" style="color: rgb(35, 31, 32);"><span style=";font-family:Verdana;font-size:85%;" >There are no restrictions on number of attempts that can be availed by an applicant.<o:p></o:p></span></li></ol> <p class="MsoNormal"><span style="color: rgb(35, 31, 32);font-family:Verdana;font-size:85%;" ><o:p> </o:p></span></p> <p class="MsoNormal"><span style="color: rgb(35, 31, 32);font-family:Verdana;font-size:85%;" ><span style="color: rgb(0, 0, 153);"><br /></span></span></p><p class="MsoNormal"><span style="color: rgb(35, 31, 32);font-family:Verdana;font-size:85%;" ><span style="color: rgb(0, 0, 153);">Important dates to Remember</span><o:p></o:p></span></p> <ol style="margin-top: 0in;" start="9" type="1"><ul style="margin-top: 0in;" type="square"><li class="MsoNormal" style="color: rgb(102, 0, 204);"><span style=";font-family:Verdana;font-size:85%;" >Availability of Information Bulletin </span><span style=";font-family:Verdana;font-size:85%;" ><span style=""> </span></span><span style=";font-family:Verdana;font-size:85%;" >At Online : </span><span style="color: rgb(204, 51, 204); font-weight: bold;font-size:85%;" ><st1:date year="2009" day="27" month="5"><span style="font-family:Verdana;">27^thMay, 2009</span></st1:date></span><span style=";font-family:Verdana;font-size:85%;" > <span style=""> </span><o:p></o:p></span></li><li class="MsoNormal" style="color: rgb(102, 0, 204);"><span style=";font-family:Verdana;font-size:85%;" >At Indian Bank : </span><span style="color: rgb(204, 51, 204); font-weight: bold;font-size:85%;" ><st1:date year="2009" day="27" month="5"><span style="font-family:Verdana;">27^th May, 2009</span></st1:date></span><span style=";font-family:Verdana;font-size:85%;" ><o:p></o:p></span></li><li class="MsoNormal" style="color: rgb(102, 0, 204);"><span style=";font-family:Verdana;font-size:85%;" >Last date for Receiving of Application Forms : </span><span style="color: rgb(204, 51, 204); font-weight: bold;font-size:85%;" ><st1:date year="2009" day="26" month="6"><span style="font-family:Verdana;">26^th <span style=""> </span>June, 2009</span></st1:date></span><span style=";font-family:Verdana;font-size:85%;" ><o:p></o:p></span></li><li class="MsoNormal" style="color: rgb(102, 0, 204);"><span style=";font-family:Verdana;font-size:85%;" >Last date for Receiving of Application Forms (with late fees) : </span><span style="color: rgb(204, 51, 204); font-weight: bold;font-size:85%;" ><st1:date year="2009" day="15" month="7"><span style="font-family:Verdana;">15^th <span style=""> </span></span><span style="font-family:Verdana;"><span style=""> </span></span><span style="font-family:Verdana;">July, 2009</span></st1:date></span><span style=";font-family:Verdana;font-size:85%;" ><o:p></o:p></span></li><li class="MsoNormal" style="color: rgb(102, 0, 204);"><span style=";font-family:Verdana;font-size:85%;" >Dispatch of Admit Cards will begin : </span><span style="color: rgb(204, 51, 204); font-weight: bold;font-size:85%;" ><st1:date year="2009" day="7" month="9"><span style="font-family:Verdana;">07^th </span><span style="font-family:Verdana;"><span style=""> </span></span><span style="font-family:Verdana;">September, 2009</span></st1:date></span><span style=";font-family:Verdana;font-size:85%;" ><o:p></o:p></span></li><li class="MsoNormal" style=""><span style="color: rgb(102, 0, 204);font-family:Verdana;font-size:85%;" >Date of Exam : </span><span style="color: rgb(204, 51, 204); font-weight: bold;font-size:85%;" ><st1:date year="2009" day="7" month="9"><span style="font-family:Verdana;">27^th </span><span style="font-family:Verdana;"><span style=""> </span></span><span style="font-family:Verdana;">September, 2009</span></st1:date></span></li></ul></ol> <p class="MsoNormal"><span style=";font-family:Verdana;font-size:85%;" ><o:p> </o:p></span></p><div class="blogger-post-footer"><img width='1' height='1' src='https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/tracker/2608962106724577004-2925432622201286344?l=hi5times.blogspot.com' alt='' /></div>ckanthnoreply@blogger.com1tag:blogger.com,1999:blog-2608962106724577004.post-14979098228240241262009-05-16T04:01:00.000-07:002009-05-16T04:02:34.767-07:00andhra pradesh polls results<div class="blogger-post-footer"><img width='1' height='1' src='https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/tracker/2608962106724577004-1497909822824024126?l=hi5times.blogspot.com' alt='' /></div>ckanthnoreply@blogger.com0tag:blogger.com,1999:blog-2608962106724577004.post-88558870238921234782009-04-17T00:32:00.000-07:002010-02-05T22:14:11.777-08:00<meta name="Generator" content="Microsoft Word 11"><meta name="Originator" content="Microsoft Word 11"><link rel="File-List" href="file:///C:%5CDOCUME%7E1%5CADMINI%7E1%5CLOCALS%7E1%5CTemp%5Cmsohtml1%5C01%5Cclip_filelist.xml"><o:smarttagtype namespaceuri="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:office:smarttags" name="place"></o:smarttagtype><o:smarttagtype namespaceuri="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:office:smarttags" name="City"></o:smarttagtype><o:smarttagtype namespaceuri="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:office:smarttags" name="address"></o:smarttagtype><o:smarttagtype namespaceuri="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:office:smarttags" name="Street"></o:smarttagtype><o:smarttagtype namespaceuri="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:office:smarttags" name="country-region"></o:smarttagtype><o:smarttagtype namespaceuri="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:office:smarttags" name="PlaceType"></o:smarttagtype><o:smarttagtype namespaceuri="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:office:smarttags" name="PlaceName"></o:smarttagtype><!--[if gte mso 9]><xml> <w:worddocument> <w:view>Normal</w:View> <w:zoom>0</w:Zoom> <w:punctuationkerning/> <w:validateagainstschemas/> <w:saveifxmlinvalid>false</w:SaveIfXMLInvalid> <w:ignoremixedcontent>false</w:IgnoreMixedContent> <w:alwaysshowplaceholdertext>false</w:AlwaysShowPlaceholderText> <w:compatibility> <w:breakwrappedtables/> <w:snaptogridincell/> <w:wraptextwithpunct/> <w:useasianbreakrules/> <w:dontgrowautofit/> </w:Compatibility> <w:browserlevel>MicrosoftInternetExplorer4</w:BrowserLevel> </w:WordDocument> </xml><![endif]--><!--[if gte mso 9]><xml> <w:latentstyles deflockedstate="false" latentstylecount="156"> </w:LatentStyles> </xml><![endif]--><!--[if !mso]><object classid="clsid:38481807-CA0E-42D2-BF39-B33AF135CC4D" id="ieooui"></object> <style> st1\:*{behavior:url(#ieooui) } </style> <![endif]--><style> <!-- /* Font Definitions */ @font-face {font-family:Calibri; 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font-family:"Times New Roman"; mso-ansi-language:#0400; mso-fareast-language:#0400; mso-bidi-language:#0400;} </style> <![endif]--><p class="MsoNormal" style="margin-bottom: 0.0001pt; line-height: normal;"><b style=""><span style=";font-family:&quot;;font-size:12pt;" >1. All of the following are sources of Ω-3 PUFA except: <br /></span></b><span style=";font-family:&quot;;font-size:12pt;" >a. Mustard oil <br />b. Groundnut oil <br />c. Corn oil <br />d. Fish oil <br /> <br /><b style="">2. Violent inversion of the foot will lead to avulsion of tendon of the following muscle attched to the tuberosity of the 5th metatarsal: <br /></b>a. Peroneus brevis <br />b. Peroneus longus <br />c. Peroneus tertius <br />d. Extensor digitorum brevis <br /> <br /><b style="">3. Kanavel’s sign is seen in: <br /></b>a. Tenosynovitis <br />b. Dupuyteren’s contracture <br />c. Carpal tunnel syndrome <br />d. Trigger finger <br /> <br /><b style="">4. Staging of bone tumours is done by: <br /></b>a. Enneking <br />b. <st1:city st="on">Manchester</st1:city> <br />c. <st1:place st="on"><st1:city st="on">Edmonton</st1:city></st1:place> <br />d. TNM <br /> <br /><b style="">5. Post-operative radiotherapy in a patient operated for Ca-endometrium is indicated in all of </b>the following except: <br />a. Deep myometrial invasion <br />b. Pelvic lymph node involvement <br />c. Enlarged uterine cavity <br />d. Poor tumour differentiation <br /> <br /><b style="">6. When stem cell transforms to form other tissues, the process is called as: <br /></b>a. Dedifferentiation <br />b. Redifferentiation <br />c. Transdifferentiation <br />d. Subdifferentiation <br /> <br /><b style="">7. ‘Egg-on-side’ appearance on X-ray chest is seen in: <br /></b>a. Tetralogy of Fallot <br />b. Uncorrected TGA <br />c. Tricuspid atresia <br />d. Ebstein’s anomaly <br /> <br /><b style="">8. All are essential components of TOF except: <br /></b>a. Valvular pulmonic stenosis <br />b. Right ventricular hypertrophy <br />c. Infundibular stenosis <br />d. Aorta overriding <br /> <br /><b style="">9. <st1:city st="on"><st1:place st="on">Hampton</st1:place></st1:city>’s hump is seen in: <br /></b>a. Pulmonary embolism <br />b. Tuberculosis <br />c. Bronchogenic Ca <br />d. .. <br /> <br /><b style="">10. All of the following can be used for thromboprophylaxis except: <br /></b>a. Heparin <br />b. Aspirin <br />c. Warfarin <br />d. Antithrombin-III <br /> <br /><b style="">11. ECG was shown. 70 year old man with no prefious significant medical history presenting </b>with sudden onset syncope. Most likely diagnosis is: <br />a. Vasovagal shock <br />b. Pulmonary embolism <br />c. Complete heart block <br />d. Temporal lobe epilepsy <br /> <br /><b style="">12. Uppermost structure seen at the hilus of the left lung is: <br /></b>a. Pulmonary artery <br />b. Pulmonary vein <br />c. Bronchus <br />d. Bronchial artery <br /> <br /><b style="">13. The best investigation is thromboembolism is: <br /></b>a. D-dimer levels <br />b. <st1:street st="on"><st1:address st="on">Multicentric CT</st1:address></st1:street> angiography <br />c. Colour Doppler USG <br />d. Intracatheter angiography <br /> <br /><b style="">14. Hypercalcemia is caused by all except: <br /></b>a. <st1:place st="on">Loop</st1:place> diuretics <br />b. Lithium <br />c. Vitamin D intoxication <br />d. .. <br /><!--[if !supportLineBreakNewLine]--> <br /><!--[endif]--><o:p></o:p></span></p> <p class="MsoNormal" style="margin-bottom: 0.0001pt; line-height: normal;"><b style=""><span style=";font-family:&quot;;font-size:12pt;" >15. Nephelometry is: <br /></span></b><span style=";font-family:&quot;;font-size:12pt;" >a. Lambert-Beer law <br />b. Scattering of light by particulate solution <br />c. Defraction of light <br />d. Decreased intensity of light <br /> <br /><b style="">16. Most common site of spinal cord tumour is: <br /></b>a. Intradural extramedullary <br />b. Extradural <br />c. Intramedullary <br />d. All have equal distribution <br /> <br /><b style="">17. Extensive involvement of deep white matter with hyperintense thalamic lesion on non-contrast CT scan of the brain is seen in: <br /></b>a. Alexander’s disease <br />b. Krabbe’s ds. <br />c. Canavan’s ds <br />d. Metachromatic leucodystrophy <br /> <br /><b style="">18. A 2-year old child presents with scattered lesions in the skull. Biopsy revealed Langerhans giant cells. Most commonly associated is: <br /></b>a. CD1a <br />b. CD57 <br />c. CD3 <br />d. CD68 <br /> <br /><b style="">19. A patient is posted for elective surgery. Which of the following drugs should be stopped on the day of surgery: <br /></b>a. Atenolol <br />b. Amlodepine <br />c. Statins <br />d. Metformin <br /> <br /><b style="">20. Which of the following is not included in intensive management of diabetes mellitus: <br /></b>a. Pregnancy.. <br />b. Postural hypotension due to autonomic neuropathy <br />c. DM with acute MI <br />d. Post kidney transplant <br /> <br /><b style="">21. VHL syndrome includes all except: <br /></b>a. Endolymphatic sac tumours <br />b. Pheochromocytoma <br />c. Hemangioendotheliomas <br />d. Islet cell tumours <br /> <br /><b style="">22. All but one acts via GABAA except: <br /></b>a. Thiopentone <br />b. Midazolam <br />c. Zolpidem <br />d. Promethazine <br /> <br /><b style="">23. Which of the following is not used as a sedative,but causes sedation as a side effect: <br /></b>a. Digitalis,anti-arrhythmics <br />b. Antihistaminics,antidepressants <br />c. Macrolides,… <br />d. .. <br /> <br /><b style="">24. Caspases are involved in: <br /></b>a. Apoptosis <br />b. .. <br />c. .. <br />d. .. <br /> <br /><b style="">25. Reye’s syndrome is ultrastructurally characterized by: <br /></b>a. Mitochondrial blebs and enlarged mitochondria <br />b. Depletion of glycogen <br />c. Dilatation of the endoplasmic reticulum <br />d. Perinuclear staining <br /> <br /><b style="">26. Primitive streak initiation and maintenance is due to: <br /></b>a. Brachyury gene <br />b. BMPR-4 <br />c. Nodal gene <br />d. FGF-8 <br /> <br /><b style="">27. HACEK group includes all except: <br /></b>a. Hemophilus aprophillus <br />b. Acinetobacter baumanni <br />c. Eikenella corrodens <br />d. Cardiobacterium hominis <br /> <br /><b style="">28. All are true about Thiopentone except: <br /></b>a. NaHCO3 is a preservative <br />b. Contraindicated in Porphyrias <br />c. Agent of choice in shock <br />d. Cerebroprotective <br /> <br /><b style="">29. All regarding Mivacurium are true except: <br /></b>a. Larger doses speed the onset of action <br />b. Bronchospasm <br />c. <st1:place st="on">Flushing</st1:place> <br />d. Hypertension <br /> <br /><b style="">30. A male patient with symptoms of urethritis. Examination reveals only pus cells but no organisms. Lesions are caused mostly by:(do not remember the exact question but it was a straight forward question): <br /></b>a. Chlamydia trachomatis <br />b. H.ducreyi <br />c. Treponema pallidum <br />d. .. <br /> <br /><b style="">31. Lancefield grouping of streptococci is done by using: <br /></b>a. M protein <br />b. Group C peptidoglycan cell wall <br />c. Group C carbohydrate antigen <br />d. .. <br /> <br /><b style="">32. Increased cerebral O2 consumption is caused by: <br /></b>a. Propofol <br />b. Ketamine <br />c. Atracurium <br />d. Fentanyl <br /> <br /><b style="">33. Marker for acute Hepatitis B is: <br /></b>a. HBV-DNA polymerase <br />b. IgG anti-HBc <br />c. Core antigen (HbcAg) <br />d. Anti-HbsAg <br /> <br /><b style="">34. Ulnar injury in the arm leads to all except: <br /></b>a. Sensory loss of the medial 1/3rd of the hand <br />b. Weakness of the hypothenar muscles <br />c. Claw hand <br />d. Adductor pollicis paralysis <br /> <br /><b style="">35. After fracture of the penis ( injury to the tunica albugenia) with intact Buck’s fascia, there occurs hematoma at: <br /></b>a. The penis and scrotum <br />b. At the perineum in a butterfly shape <br />c. Penis, scrotum, perineum and lower part of anterior abdominal wall <br />d. Shaft of the penis only. <br /> <br /><b style="">36. Floating ‘Water-Lily’ sign is seen in: <br /></b>a. Hydatid ds. <br />b. Aspergillosis <br />c. Tuberculous cavity <br />d. .. <br /> <br /><b style="">37. Inflammation of a retrocaecal appendix will produce pain when there is which of the following movements at the hip: <br /></b>a. Flexion <br />b. Extension <br />c. Medial rotation <br />d. Lateral rotation <br /> <br /><b style="">38. Left renal vein crosses the Aorta: <br /></b>a. Anteriorly, above the superior mesenteric artery <br />b. Anteriorly, below the superior mesenteric artery <br />c. Posteriorly, at the level of superior mesenteric artery <br />d. Anteriorly, below the inferior mesenteric artery <br /> <br /><b style="">39. Occlusion occurs at the 2nd part of Axillary artery, blood flow is maintained by </b>anastomosis between: <br />a. Anterior and posterior circumflex humoral artery <br />b. Suprascapular and posterior circumflex artery <br />c. Deep branch of the transverse cervical artery and Subscapular artery <br />d. Anterior circumflex artery and subscapular artery <br /> <br /><b style="">40. In post-ductal coarctation of the aorta, blood flow to the lower limbs in maintained by </b>increased blood flow through: <br />a. Inferior Phrenic and pericardiophrenic vessels <br />b. Intercostal and <st1:place st="on">Superior</st1:place> epigastric <br />c. Subcostal and Umbilical <br />d. … <br /> <br /><b style="">41. Which of the following is correctly matched: <br /></b>a. B cells – Somatostain <br />b. D cells – Insulin <br />c. G cells – Gastrin <br />d. ….. <br /> <br /><b style="">42. Exercise causes: <br /></b>a. Increased blood flow to the muscles after half minute of minute <br />b. Increase in cerebral blood flow due to increase in systolic blood pressure <br />c. Body temperature rise <br />d. … <br /> <br /><b style="">43. All of the following occur when the blood flows through the capillaries except: <br /></b>a. Increase in hematocrit <br />b. Hb curve shifts to the left <br />c. Increased protein content <br />d. Decrease in pH <br /> <br /><b style="">44. When a person changes position from standing to lying down position, following occurs: <br /></b>a. Heart rate increases and settles at a higher level <br />b. Venous return to the heart rises immediately <br />c. Cerebral blood flow becomes more than that in standing position and settles at a higher level <br />d. Decrease in blood flow to the lung apex <br /> <br /><b style="">45. In mitral valve prolapse, the histological finding is: <br /></b>a. Hyalinization of the valve <br />b. Fibrinoid necrosis <br />c. Myxomatous degeneration of the valve <br />d. .. <br /> <br /><b style="">46. Regarding flourosis all are true except: <br /></b>a. Flourosis is the most common cause of dental caries in children <br />b. Deposition occurs in the skeletal system and muscles <br />c. Deflouridation is done by Nalgonda technique <br />d. Genu valgum <br /> <br /><b style="">47. SAFE strategy is recommended for: <br /></b>a. Trachoma <br />b. Glaucoma <br />c. Diabetic retinopathy <br />d. Cataract <br /> <br /> <br /><b style="">48. Telefona is: <br /></b>a. Beating on the feet ( soles ) <br />b. Pulling of hair <br />c. Beating on both the ears <br />d. .. <br /> <br /><b style="">49. A female patient presents with diffuse alopecia to you. She had suffered from </b>typhoid <b style="">fever 4 months back. Most probable diagnosis is: <br /></b>a. Androgenetic alopecia <br />b. Telogen effluvium <br />c. Anagen effluvium <br />d. Alopecia areata <br /> <br /><b style="">50. All of the following are causes of cicatrizing alopecia except: <br /></b>a. Lichen planus <br />b. Discoid lupus erythematosus <br />c. Alopecia areata <br />d. Lupus vulgaris <br /> <br /><b style="">51. Learning does not include: <br /></b>a. Modelling <br />b. Catharsis <br />c. Exposure <br />d. Sensitization <br /> <br /><b style="">52. In death due to asphyxia, last to be opened is: <br /></b>a. Head <br />b. Neck <br />c. Thorax <br />d. Abdomen <br /> <br /><b style="">53. Acridine orange is used as a stain for: <br /></b>a. DNA and RNA <br />b. Proteins <br />c. Carbohydrate <br />d. Lipids <br /> <br /><b style="">54. PAS does not stain: <br /></b>a. Fungal cell wall <br />b. Basement membrane of bacteria <br />c. Glycogen <br />d. Lipids <br /> <br /><b style="">55. Not used to stain fats: <br /></b>a. Oil red O <br />b. Congo red <br />c. <st1:country-region st="on">Sudan</st1:country-region> III <br />d. <st1:place st="on"><st1:country-region st="on">Sudan</st1:country-region></st1:place> black <br /> <br /><b style="">56. Peroxidase is used to detect: <br /></b>a. Glucose <br />b. Ammonia <br />c. Hemoglobin <br />d. Creatinine <br /> <br /><b style="">57. Hemoglobin estimation is not done by: <br /></b>a. Drabkin’s method <br />b. Sahli’s method <br />c. Spectrometry <br />d. Wintrobe’s method <br /> <br /><b style="">58. All of the following are included in grievous hurt except: <br /></b>a. Loss of testis <br />b. Loss of eye <br />c. Loss of kidney <br />d. Abrasion of the face <br /> <br /><b style="">59. Seen in agenesis of corpus callosum is: <br /></b>a. Astereognosis <br />b. Hemiparesis <br />c. Hemisensoriloss <br />d. No neurological deficit <br /> <br /><b style="">60. Hypertension with hypokalemia is seen in all except: <br /></b>a. B/L renal artery stenosis <br />b. End stage renal disease <br />c. Cushing’s disease <br />d. Primary hyperaldosteronism <br /> <br /><b style="">61. Hyperglycemia is caused by all except: <br /></b>a. Beta blockers <br />b. Glucocorticoids <br />c. .. <br />d. .. <br /> <br /><b style="">62. Cushing’s disease includes all except: <br /></b>a. Central obesity <br />b. Episodic hypertension <br />c. Easy bruisability <br />d. Glucose intolerance <br /> <br /><b style="">63. True about Ogilive’s syndrome are all except: <br /></b>a. It is caused by mechanical obstruction of the colon <br />b. It involves entire / part of the large colon <br />c. It occurs after previous surgery <br />d. It occurs commonly after narcotic use <br /> <br /><b style="">64. One of the following is the watershed area of the colon between the superior and inferior mesenteric arteries: <br /></b>a. Ascending colon <br />b. Hepatic flexure <br />c. Splenic flexure <br />d. Descending colon <br /> <br /><b style="">65. Regarding Phenytoin,false is: <br /></b>a. Induces microsomal enzymes <br />b. At very low doses, zero order kinetics occurs <br />c. Higher the dose,higher is the half life <br />d. Highly protein bound <br /> <br /><b style="">66. Most potent anti-emetic is: <br /></b>a. Ondansetron <br />b. Granisetron <br />c. Dolasetron <br />d. Pavalosetron <br /> <br /><b style="">67. Cryoprecipitate contains all of the following except: <br /></b>a. Factor VIII <br />b. Factor IX <br />c. Von Willebrand factor <br />d. Fibrinogen <br /> <br /><b style="">68. Therapeutic monitoring is done for all of the following except: <br /></b>a. Tacrolimus <br />b. Metformin <br />c. Cyclosporine <br />d. Phenytoin <br /> <br /><b style="">69. Not a measure of central tendency: <br /></b>a. Mode <br />b. Range <br />c. Variable <br />d. Standard deviation <br /> <br /><b style="">70. Asherman’s syndrome is diagnosed by all except: <br /></b>a. HSG <br />b. Hysteroscopy <br />c. Endometrial culture <br />d. Saline infusion USG <br /> <br /><b style="">71. Used for the treatment of migraine, the triptans act through: <br /></b>a. 5HT-1A <br />b. 5HT-1B <br />c. 5HT-1F <br />d. 5HT-3 <br /> <br /><b style="">72. True about protease inhibitors are all except: <br /></b>a. Acts as a substrate for P-glycoprotein(P-gp) and action is mediated by mdr-1 gene <br />b. Hepatic oxidative metabolism <br />c. All protease inhibitors interfere with metabolism by drug interactions <br />d. Saquinavir causes maximum induction of CYP3A4 <br /> <br /><b style="">73. Shoulder pain post laparoscopy is due to: <br /></b>a. Subphrenic abscess <br />b. CO2 narcosis <br />c. Positioning of the patient <br />d. Compression of the lung <br /> <br /><b style="">74. The medium used for Vibrio cholerae is: <br /></b>a. Thayer-martin <br />b. TCBS medium <br />c. Scirrow’s medium <br />d. .. <br /> <br /><b style="">75. Primary impact injury is seen externally most commonly in the: <br /></b>a. Head <br />b. Chest <br />c. Legs <br />d. Abdomen <br /> <br /><b style="">76. In tandem [bleep], the number of [bleep] fired are: <br /></b>a. 1 <br />b. 2 <br />c. 3 <br />d. 4 <br /> <br /><b style="">77. For biochemical analysis vitrous in sent in: <br /></b>a. Hydrochloric acid <br />b. Phenol <br />c. Formalin <br />d. Fluoride <br /> <br /><b style="">78. The agent used for fixation of Pap smear is: <br /></b>a. Ethyl alcohol <br />b. Acetone <br />c. Formalin <br />d. Xylol <br /> <br /><b style="">79. Blood spills on the floor are cleaned by: <br /></b>a. Sodium hypochlorite <br />b. Iodine <br />c. Absolute alcohol <br />d. Quarternary ammonium compounds <br /> <br /><b style="">80. Which of the following person is present in a sub centre: <br /></b>a. Multipurpose worker <br />b. Laboratory technician <br />c. Health educator <br />d. Medical officer <br /> <br /><b style="">81. True about dietary allowance are all except: <br /></b>a. Adequate intake <br />b. RDA <br />c. Dietary intake according to food composition <br />d. Food intake according to the upper limit of the RDA <br /> <br /><b style="">82. Most common type of seizures in neonates are: <br /></b>a. Clonic <br />b. Tonic <br />c. Subtle <br />d. Myoclonic <br /> <br /><b style="">83. Gall bladder epithelium is: <br /></b>a. Simple squamous <br />b. Simple cuboidal with stereocilia <br />c. Simple columnar <br />d. Simple columnar with brush border <br /> <br /><b style="">84. After laparoscopic appendicectomy, a female patient slipped and hurt her nose on the bed. She developed swelling of the nose, injury to anterior nasal bone and had mild difficulty in breathing. What would you do next? <br /></b>a. Intravenous antibiotics for 7-10 days <br />b. Observation in hospital <br />c. Surgical drainage <br />d. Discharge after 2 days and follow up of the patient after 8 weeks <br /> <br /><b style="">85. A 3-year old girl is posted for tonsillectomy. On examination it is found that she has a midline cystic swelling extending till below the hyoid bone. It is painless and moves with deglutition. The thyroid examination is normal. What should be done next? <br /></b>a. Percutaneous aspiration <br />b. I.V. antibiotics <br />c. Surgical removal <br />d. Observation <br /> <br /><b style="">86. Metabolic alkalosis is seen in: <br /></b>a. Mineralocortoid excess <br />b. Increased excretion of base <br />c. Decreased secretion of H+ ion <br />d. Deficiency of mineralocorticoids <br /> <br /><b style="">87. Goniometry is measurement of: <br /></b>a. Number of gonococci <br />b. Length of the genital hiatus <br />c. Urethrovesical angle <br />d. .. <br /> <br /><b style="">88. Good Clinical Practices (GCPs) are not a part of: <br /></b>a. Preclinical studies <br />b. Phase I studies <br />c. Phase II studies <br />d. Phase IV studies <br /> <br /><b style="">89. A 18 year old girl presents with amenorrhoea, weight loss and milky discharge from the pages . Most likely diagnosis is: <br /></b>a. Anorexia nervosa <br />b. Occult carcinoma <br />c. Hypothyroidism <br />d. HIV <br /> <br /><b style="">90. Mirena is: <br /></b>a. Used in abortion <br />b. Anti-progesterone <br />c. Progesterone IUCD <br />d. Hormonal implant <br /> <br /><b style="">91. Bisphosphonates are not used in: <br /></b>a. Hypercalcemia <br />b. Osteoporosis <br />c. Cancer <br />d. Vitamin D intoxication <br /> <br /><b style="">92. True about vitiligo are all except: <br /></b>a. Topical steroids give good results <br />b. Genetic predisposition <br />c. PUVA-B is used for the treatment <br />d. Leukotrichia is associated with good prognosis <br /> <br /><b style="">93. In osteomalacia, all are true except: <br /></b>a. Increased serum alkaline phosphatase <br />b. Increased serum calcium <br />c. Looser’s zones <br />d. Proximal myopathy <br /> <br /><b style="">94. In Hyaline cartilage, type of collagen present is: <br /></b>a. Type 1 <br />b. Type 2 <br />c. Type 3 <br />d. Type 4 <br /> <br /><b style="">95. FNAC needle gauge size is: <br /></b>a. 26 – 28 <br />b. 22 – 26 <br />c. 18 – 22 <br />d. 16 – 18 <br /> <br /><b style="">96. Which muscle is not punctured while doing a thoracic procedure in the mid-axillary line: <br /></b>a. Innermost intercostals <br />b. Transverses thoracis <br />c. External intercostals <br />d. Internal intercostals <br /> <br /><b style="">97. Dangerous area of the face is: <br /></b>a. Ciliary body <br />b. Sclera <br />c. Optic nerve <br />d. Retina <br /> <br /><b style="">98. PCR requires: <br /></b>a. Li++ <br />b. Ca++ <br />c. Na++ <br />d. Mg++ <br /> <br /><b style="">99. Urothelium does not line: <br /></b>a. Collecting ducts <br />b. Minor calyx <br />c. Ureter <br />d. Urinary bladder <br /> <br /><b style="">100. Ureteric peristalsis is due to: <br /></b>a. Sympathetic innervation <br />b. Parasympathetic innervation <br />c. Both sympathetic and parasympathetic innervation <br />d. Pacemaker activity of the smooth muscle cells in the renal pelvis <br /> <br /><b style="">101. Uterine relaxant with the least side effect: <br /></b>a. Ritodrine <br />b. MgSO4 <br />c. Nifedipine <br />d. Progesterone <br /> <br /><b style="">102. In Primary Pulmonary Hypertension all are seen except: <br /></b>a. Hyperventilation <br />b. Morbid obesity <br />c. Fenfluramine <br />d. High altitude <br /> <br /><b style="">103. Most common site of subependymal giant cell astrocytomas is: <br /></b>a. Foramen of Monro <br />b. Temporal horn of the lateral ventricle <br />c. Trigone of the lateral ventricle <br />d. Fourth ventricle <br /> <br /><b style="">104. According to Couinaud’s classification the 4th segment of the liver is: <br /></b>a. Caudate lobe <br />b. Quadrate lobe <br />c. Left lobe <br />d. Right lobe <br /> <br /><b style="">105. If the circumflex artery gives off the posterior interventricular artery, then the arterial supply is called: <br /></b>a. Right dominance <br />b. Left dominance <br />c. Balanced dominance <br />d. .. <br /> <br /><b style="">106. Not a feature of DKA is: <br /></b>a. Tachypnoea <br />b. Bradycardia <br />c. Abdominal pain <br />d. Dehydration <br /> <br /><b style="">107. In Down’s syndrome, false is: <br /></b>a. Increased PAPP-A <br />b. Increased β-HCG <br />c. Absent nasal bone <br />d. Reversal of diastolic blood flow <br /> <br /><b style="">108. With CSF all are true except: <br /></b>a. Persistent leakage causes headache <br />b. Neutrophils are normally not present <br />c. pH is less than that of blood <br />d. Secreted by the arachnoid villi <br /> <br /><b style="">109. Fractional excretion of Na++ <br /></b>a. Pre-renal azotemia <br />b. ATN <br />c. Intrinsic renal failure <br />d. Renal artery stenosis <br /> <br /><b style="">110. Scrub typhus is transmitted by: <br /></b>a. Reduvid bug <br />b. Trombiculid mite <br />c. Enteric pathogens <br />d. Cyclops <br /> <br /><b style="">111. Kala-azar, vector is: <br /></b>a. Flea <br />b. Tsetse fly <br />c. Sand fly <br />d. .. <br /> <br /><b style="">112. Regarding genital development, true is: <br /></b>a. Y chromosome is associated with ovary development <br />b. Genital ridge starts developing at 5th week <br />c. Male genitals develop earlier than female genitals <br />d. Genital development is complete by 10th week <br /> <br /><b style="">113. Transparency of the cornea is maintained by all except: <br /></b>a. Mitotic figures in the central cornea <br />b. Wide separated collagen bands <br />c. Hydration of the corneal epithelium <br />d. Unmyelinated nerve fibers <br /> <br /><b style="">114. Regarding furosemide, true is: <br /></b>a. Given by parenteral route only <br />b. Used in pulmonary oedema <br />c. Acts at the PCT <br />d. .. <br /> <br /><b style="">115. Basement membrane consists of all except: <br /></b>a. Laminin <br />b. Nidogenin <br />c. Entactin <br />d. Rhodopsin <br /> <br /><b style="">116. Thiazides cause all except: <br /></b>a. Hyperglycemia <br />b. Increased calcium excretion <br />c. Increased uric acid excretion <br />d. Useful in congestive heart failure <br /> <br /><b style="">117. Fast axonal transport is by all except: <br /></b>a. Dynenin <br />b. Kinesin <br />c. Microfilaments <br />d. Neurofilaments <br /> <br /><b style="">118. Most common tumor is NF-1 is: <br /></b>a. Astrocytoma <br />b. Optic tract glioma <br />c. Glioblastoma multiforme <br />d. .. <br /> <br /><b style="">119. Regarding type A personality, false is: <br /></b>a. Hostility <br />b. Time pressure <br />c. Competitiveness <br />d. Mood fluctuations <br /> <br /><b style="">120. Not included in the National Immunisation Programme is: <br /></b>a. Tetanus toxoid <br />b. Hepatitis B <br />c. BCG <br />d. Measles <br /> <br /><b style="">121. Pancytopenia with cellular bone marrow is seen in all except: <br /></b>a. PNH <br />b. Megaloblastic anaemia <br />c. Myelodysplastic anaemia <br />d. Congenital Dyserythropoetic Anaemia <br /> <br /><b style="">122. In emergency tracheostomy the following structures are damaged except: <br /></b>a. Isthmus of the thyroid <br />b. Inferior thyroid artery <br />c. Thyroidea ima <br />d. Inferior thyroid vein <br /> <br /><b style="">123. A newborn female child, weight 3.5kg, delivered by uncomplicated delivery, developed respiratory distress immediately after birth. On chest x-ray ground glass appearance was seen. Baby put on mechanical ventilation and was give surfactant but condition of baby deteriorates and increasing hypoxemia was present. A full term female ‘sibling’ died within a week with the same complaints. ECHO is normal. Usual cultures are negative. Your diagnosis is: <br /></b>a. Total anomalous pulmonary vein connection <br />b. Meconium aspiration syndrome <br />c. Neonatal pulmonary alveolar proteinosis <br />d. Disseminated HSV infection <br /> <br /><b style="">124. All are characteristics of schizophrenia except: <br /></b>a. Third person auditory hallucinations <br />b. Inappropriate emotions <br />c. Long stretches of mood changes <br />d. Formal thought disorder <br /> <br /><b style="">125. Senile cardiac amyloidosis is due to defect in: <br /></b>a. β2 – microglobulin <br />b. Transthyretin <br />c. AANF <br />d. Pyrin <br /> <br /><b style="">126. Perforators are not present at the: <br /></b>a. Ankle <br />b. Distal calf <br />c. Mid thigh <br />d. Below the inguinal ligament <br /> <br /><b style="">127. Increase in maternal serum AFP levels is seen in: <br /></b>a. Down’s syndrome <br />b. Molar pregnancy <br />c. Over estimated gestational age <br />d. Congenital Nephrotic Syndrome <br /> <br /><b style="">128. The ‘c’-waves in JVP are due to: <br /></b>a. Atrial contraction <br />b. Bulging of the tricuspid valve into the right atrium <br />c. Ventricular systole when the tricuspid valve is closed <br />d. .. <br /> <br /><b style="">129. Tongue develops from: <br /></b>a. Occipital somites <br />b. Mesoderm of the pharyngeal pouch <br />c. Cervical somites <br />d. .. <br /> <br /><b style="">130. Prions consist of: <br /></b>a. DNA and RNA <br />b. DNA, RNA and proteins <br />c. RNA and proteins <br />d. Only proteins <br /> <br /><b style="">131. Polyhydramnios is associated with all except: <br /></b>a. .. <br />b. .. <br />c. Bilateral renal agenesis <br />d. .. <br /> <br /><b style="">132. Shock lung is characterized histologically by: <br /></b>a. Diffuse alveolar oedema <br />b. Hemosiderosis <br />c. Interstitial pneumonia <br />d. Pulmonary oedema <br /> <br /><b style="">133. Regarding respiratory viruses all are true except: <br /></b>a. RSV is the most common cause of bronchiolitis in infants <br />b. Mumps causes septic meningitis in adults <br />c. .. <br />d. .. <br /> <br /><b style="">134. Internal Podalic Version done in cases of transeverse lie is associated with the following </b>complication: <br />a. Uterine rupture <br />b. Vaginal laceration <br />c. Uterine atony <br />d. Cervical laceration <br /> <br /><b style="">135. In a patient with post partum hemorrhage with an existing heart disease, which is contraindicated:</b> <br />a. Misoprostol <br />b. Methyl ergometrine <br />c. Oxytocin <br />d. .. <br /> <br /><b style="">136. A patient presents with Carcinoma of the larynx involving the left false cords, left arytenoids and the left aryepiglottic folds with bilateral mobile true cords. Treatment of choice is: <br /></b>a. Vertical hemilaryngectomy <br />b. Horizontal hemilaryngectomy <br />c. Radiotherapy followed by chemotherapy <br />d. Total laryngectomy <br /> <br /><b style="">137. True about Benzodiazepines as compared to other hypnotics is: <br /></b>a. They alter sleep pattern more than other hypnotics <br />b. More sedative than other hypnotics <br />c. Overdose is better tolerated compared to other hypnotics <br />d. .. <br /> <br /><b style="">138. A gravida3 female with a history of 2 previous 2nd trimester abortions presents at 22 weeks of gestation with funneling of the cervix. Most appropriate management would be: <br /></b>a. Administer Dinoprostone <br />b. Administer Progesterone <br />c. Apply Fothergill’s stitch <br />d. Apply McDonald’s stitch <br /> <br /><b style="">139. A female come with complaints of chest pain.On examination she is found to have pericarditis with pericardial effusion. The pain is mediated by: <br /></b>a. Deep cardiac plexus <br />b. Superficial cardiac plexus <br />c. Phrenic nerve <br />d. Subcostal nerve <br /> <br /><b style="">140. The mechanism of action of surfactant is: <br /></b>a. Breaks the structure of water in the alveoli <br />b. Lubricates the flow of CO2 diffusion <br />c. Makes the capillary surface hydrophilic <br />d. .. <br /> <br /><b style="">141. A 12 year old girl presents with Acute rheumatic carditis with mitral insufficiency. She is likely to have: <br /></b>a. Increased peak expiratory flow <br />b. Increased total lung capacity <br />c. Increased residual volume <br />d. Decreased functional residual capacity <br /> <br /><b style="">142. Bicarbonate is maximally absorbed from: <br /></b>a. PCT <br />b. DCT <br />c. Collecting duct <br />d. Thick ascending loop of Henle <br /> <br /><b style="">143. Feature of Irreversible cell injury is: <br /></b>a. Amorphous deposits in the mitochondria <br />b. .. <br />c. .. <br />d. .. <br /> <br /><b style="">144. In Lysosomal Storage Disorders, true is: <br /></b>a. The lysosomes are deficient in the enzyme hydrolase <br />b. There is a defect in the fusion od lysosomes and phagosomes <br />c. There is a defect in the lysosomal membrane <br />d. .. <br /> <br /><b style="">145. Comparison of the value obtained and a predetermined objective is done by: <br /></b>a. Evaluation <br />b. Monitoring <br />c. Input - output analysis <br />d. Network analysis <br /> <br /><b style="">146. Meiosis occurs at which of the following transformation: <br /></b>a. Primary spermatocyte to intermediate spermatocyte <br />b. Primary spermatocyte to secondary spermatocyte <br />c. Secondary spermatocyte to round spermatid <br />d. Round spermatid to elongated spermatid <br /> <br /><b style="">147. Sertoli cells in the testis have receptors for: <br /></b>a. FSH <br />b. LH <br />c. Inhibin <br />d. .. <br /> <br /><b style="">148. According to the new WHO criteria, all are true in a normal person except: <br /></b>a. Sperm count > 20 million <br />b. Volume > 1 ml <br />c. <st1:place st="on">Normal</st1:place> morphology in > 15 % (strict criteria) <br />d. Aggressive forward motility in > 25 % <br /> <br /><b style="">149. 18 year old male presents with pectus excavatum. He denies history of any dyspnoea or chest pain. On examination there is mild pectus excavatum and intermittent wheezing on exertion. Surgery in this patient is indicated if he has: <br /></b>a. FEV1 / FVC less than 0.60 <br />b. Limiation of maximum inspiration during exercise <br />c. Peak work capacity 60% of expected <br />d. Functional work capacity 80% of expected <br /> <br /><b style="">150. Following is associated with maximum risk of invasive carcinoma of cervix: <br /></b>a. Low grade squamous intraepithelial lesion <br />b. High grade squamous intraepithelial lesion <br />c. Squamous intraepithelial lesion associated with HPV-16 <br />d. Squamous intraepithelial lesion associated with HIV <br /> <br /><b style="">151. Maternal Mortality Rate is calculated by: <br /></b>a. Maternal deaths/live birth <br />b. Maternal deaths/1000 live births <br />c. Maternal deaths/100000 live births <br />d. Maternal deaths/100000 population <br /> <br /><b style="">152. In HIV window period indicates: <br /></b>a. Time period between infection and onset of first symptoms <br />b. Time period between infection and detection of antibodies against HIV <br />c. . <br />d. . <br /> <br /><b style="">153. In an epidemic the first case of come to the notice of the investigator is: <br /></b>a. Index case <br />b. Primary case <br />c. Secondary case <br />d. Tertiary case <br /> <br /><b style="">154. In active chronic hepatitis B, all are seen except: <br /></b>a. HbsAg <br />b. IgM anti-HbcAg <br />c. HbeAg <br />d. Anti-HbsAg <br /> <br /><b style="">155. Micronodular cirrhosis is seen in all except: <br /></b>a. Chronic hepatitis B with… <br />b. Alcoholic hepatitis <br />c. Chronic cirrhosis secondary to biliary stasis <br />d. Hemochromatosis <br /> <br /><b style="">156. Councilman bodies are seen in: <br /></b>a. Alcoholic cirrhosis <br />b. Wilson’s disease <br />c. Acute viral hepatitis <br />d. .. <br /><span style=""> </span> <br /><b style="">157. Altered perception of real objects is: <br /></b>a. Illusion <br />b. Delusion <br />c. Hallucination <br />d. Delirium <br /> <br /><b style="">158. Epidemic Dropsy is due to: <br /></b>a. BOAA <br />b. Sanguinarine <br />c. Aflatoxin <br />d. .. <br /> <br /><b style="">159. Vitamin K is required for: <br /></b>a. Carboxylation <br />b. Hydroxylation <br />c. .. <br />d. .. <br /> <br /><b style="">160. Which of the following will cause an increase in the prevalence of the disease: <br /></b>a. Immigration of healthy persons <br />b. Increased cure rate of the disease <br />c. Longer duration of the disease <br />d. .. <br /> <br /><b style="">161. A 30 year old male patient presents with a peptic ulcer in the posterior duodenum with a bleeding vessel at the base. The bleeding is not controlled endoscopically. On examination his heart rate is 100/min, BP is 110/76 mm of Hg and Hb is 10 gm/dl after transfusion. Next step in his management will be:</b> <br />a. Proton pump inhibitors <br />b. Duodenotomy with controlled bleeder and pyloroplasty <br />c. Duodenotomy with controlled bleeder and truncal vagotomy with antrectomy <br />d. Partial gastrectomy involving the bleeding ulcer <br /> <br /><b style="">162. For a lower end esophagus adenocarcinoma, a trans-hiatal oesophagostomy is planned. The approach would be in the following order: <br /></b>a. Abdomen – Neck <br />b. Chest – Abdomen – Neck <br />c. Abdomen – Chest – Neck <br />d. Chest – Neck <br /> <br /><b style="">163. Clomiphene citrate is associated with all except: <br /></b>a. Polycystic ovarian disease <br />b. Multiple pregnancies <br />c. Ovarian cancer <br />d. Teratogenecity <br /> <br /><b style="">164. Regarding National Polio Surveillance all are tru except: <br /></b>a. Mopping up is done in areas with active cases found <br />b. .. <br />c. .. <br />d. Acute Flaccid Paralysis(AFP) Surveillance is not done in children <br /> <br /><b style="">165. True about polioviruses is: <br /></b>a. Most cases are symptomatic <br />b. Inactivated vaccines given I.M. produce spastic paralysis <br />c. .. <br />d. Inactivated polio vaccine are given to child less than 3 years of age <br /> <br /><b style="">166. A 18 month old child come to you with history of immunization taken only for a single </b>dose of OPV and DPT. What will you give now? <br />a. Re-start the immunization according to age <br />b. Give BCG, Measles, and second doses of OPV and DPT <br />c. Give BCG, Measles and booster doses of OPV and DPT <br />d. Give Measles and booster doses of OPV and DPT <br /> <br /><b style="">167. Regarding nitric oxide, false is: <br /></b>a. Seen in the lung of smokers <br />b. Increases cAMP levels <br />c. Used to treat hypertension <br />d. .. <br /> <br /><b style="">168. True about fibrates is all except: <br /></b>a. (MOA)….PPARα….lipoprotein lipase…decreased LDL… <br />b. Absorped better on empty stomach and decreased on food intake <br />c. Side effects include rash, myalgia, impotence and many others <br />d. They are the drug of choice in type III hyperlipidemia and… <br /> <br /><b style="">169. In a survey, mamny children are examinedand were found to have urogenital abnormalities. The ones having urothelial cancers are most likely to be associated with which anomaly: <br /></b>a. Medullary sponge kidney <br />b. Bladder extrophy <br />c. Unilateral renal agenesis <br />d. Double ureter <br /> <br /><b style="">170. What is true about linkage analysis in familial gene disorders: <br /></b>a. Characteristic DNA polymorphism in a family is associated with disorders <br />b. Useful to make pedigree chart to show affected and non-affected family members <br />c. Used to make a pedigree chart to show non-paternity <br />d. .. <br /> <br /><b style="">171. Active method to detect undiagnosed cases in apparently healthy persons is: <br /></b>a. Screening <br />b. Surveillance <br />c. Case finding <br />d. Notification <br /> <br /><b style="">172. Psychodynamic theory of mental illness is based on: <br /></b>a. Unconscious conflict <br />b. Maladjusted reinforcement <br />c. Organic neurological problem <br />d. .. <br /> <br /><b style="">173. Positive Schick’s test indicates that the person is: <br /></b>a. Immune to diphtheria <br />b. Hypersensitive to diphtheria <br />c. Susceptible to diphtheria <br />d. Carrier of diphtheria <br /> <br /><b style="">174. True about Corynebacterium diphtheria is: <br /></b>a. Deep invasion is not seen <br />b. Elek’s test is done for toxigenicity <br />c. Metachromatic granules are seen <br />d. Toxigenicity is mediated by chromosomal change <br /> <br /><b style="">175. Primary Health Care is: <br /></b>a. Health for all <br />b. .. <br />c. .. <br />d. .. <br /> <br /><b style="">176. In which of the following heart diseases is maternal mortality during pregnancy is found </b>to be the highest? <br />a. Coarcatation of aorta <br />b. Eisenmenger’s complex <br />c. Aortic stenosis <br />d. Mitral stenosis <br /> <br /><b style="">177. Corneal endothelium ion exchange pumps are inhibited by: <br /></b>a. Inhibition of anaerobic glycolysis <br />b. Activation of anaerobic glycolysis <br />c. Activation of <st1:place st="on"><st1:placetype st="on">cAMP</st1:placetype> <st1:placename st="on">phosphodiesterase</st1:placename></st1:place> inhibitors <br />d. Interference with electron chain transport <br /> <br /><b style="">178. About myocardial O2 demand, true is: <br /></b>a. Inverse relation with heart rate <br />b. Inverse relation to systemic hypertension <br />c. Constant relation to external work done <br />d. Negligible in quiescent heart <br /> <br /><b style="">179. Not a part of informed consent is: <br /></b>a. .. <br />b. .. <br />c. .. <br />d. Concealed information….. <br /> <br /><b style="">180. Proteins which are different in peptide sequence but have a similar structure are said to </b>be: <br />a. Convergent <br />b. Divergent <br />c. Opportunistic <br />d. .. <br /> <br /><b style="">181. A patient presents with hyperparathyroidism. He has a family history of his siblings </b>having pituitary involvement, thyroid nodules, pancreatic involvement, parathyroid hyperplasia and cutaneous angiofibromas. Most likely diagnosis: <br />a. MEN 1 <br />b. MEN 2A <br />c. MEN 2B <br />d. MEN 2C <br /> <br /><b style="">182. A 23 year old male who is otherwise normal complains of mild pain in his right iliac fossa in a waveform pattern which increases during the night and he becomes exhausted and is admitted in the hospital. On examination there is mild hematuria. Urine examination reveals plenty of RBCs, 50WBCs/hpf. Urine pH is 5.5. Most likely diagnosis is: <br /></b>a. Glomerulonephritis <br />b. Ca-Urinary bladder <br />c. Ureteral calculus <br />d. .. <br /> <br /><b style="">183. Under the National Programme for control of blindness who is supposed to conduct the vision screening of school students?</b> <br />a. School teachers <br />b. Medical officers of health centers <br />c. Ophthalmologists <br />d. Health assistants <br /> <br /><b style="">184. A 71/2 year old child presents with non productive cough, mild stridor since 6 months. On oral antibiotics, patient is improving but suddenly develops wheezing, productive cough, mild fever. X-ray shows hyperlucency and PFT shows obstructive curve. Most probable diagnosis is: <br /></b>a. Post viral syndrome <br />b. Bronchiolitis obliterans <br />c. Follicular bronchitis <br />d. Pulmonary alveolar microlithiasis <br /> <br /><b style="">185. A 2 year old female child developed fever, cough and respiratory distress. On chest x-ray consolidation is seen in right lower lobe. She improved with antibiotics but on follow up at 8 weeks was again found to have increasing consolidation in right lower lobe and fever. Your next investigation would be: <br /></b>a. Bronchoscopy <br />b. Bacterial culture of the nasopharynx <br />c. CT scan of the chest <br />d. Allergen sensitivity test <br /> <br /><b style="">186. Persistent foetal lobulation of adult kidney is due to:</b> <br />a. Congenital renal defect <br />b. Obstructive uropathy <br />c. Intrauterine infections and scar <br />d. Is a normal variety <br /> <br /><b style="">187. A child presents with history of respitory infections. His sweat chlorides levels are 36 and 41mEq/L on two different occasions. Which other test would you do to exclude the diagnosis of cystic fibrosis:</b> <br />a. Repeat sweat chloride measurements <br />b. Nasal electrode potential difference <br />c. Fat in stool for next 72 hours <br />d.